Elite Obstetric
Anesthesia Test Bank:
2026/2027 Standards
PART 0: THE NAVIGATOR
● PART I: THE PRIMER
○ The "Welcome to the Big Leagues" Hook
○ The "Critical Action" Cheat Sheet
● PART II: THE ELITE TEST BANK
○ Foundational Syntax & Application (Questions 1–28): Core Physiology,
Pharmacology, and 2026/2027 Guidelines.
○ Professional Simulation (Questions 29–58): Immediate Clinical Actions, Crisis
Recognition, and Equipment Optimization.
○ Grandmaster Synthesis (Questions 59–88): High-Stakes Multivariable Crises,
Complex Pathologies, and Morbidity Aversion.
PART I: THE PRIMER
Welcome to the big leagues. This is not about memorizing textbook tables; this is about
intercepting high-stakes maternal and fetal catastrophes before they occur. Using this test bank
will forge your academic knowledge into razor-sharp professional intuition, allowing you to
synthesize 2026/2027 best practices instantly when the monitors alarm and the room looks to
you for direction.
The "Critical Action" Cheat Sheet:
● The Sepsis 2-Step (CMQCC V2.0): Pregnancy alters baseline vitals. Do not rely on old
SIRS criteria. Screen first, then confirm via End Organ Injury (MAP < 65, Cr ≥ 1.2, Plt <
100k, Bilirubin > 2).
● Hemorrhage Control (CMQCC V3.0): Abandon estimated blood loss. Use Quantitative
Blood Loss (QBL). Tranexamic acid (TXA) is an early, obligatory adjunct, not a last resort.
● The Airway Hard Deck (ASA 2026): Limit intubation attempts to two. If facing a Can't
Intubate, Can't Oxygenate (CICO) scenario in a pregnant patient, the immediate definitive
airway is a perimortem cesarean delivery to relieve aortocaval compression and restore
maternal functional residual capacity.
● LAST in Pregnancy: Gestational physiology increases susceptibility to Local Anesthetic
Systemic Toxicity. Labor pain masks early CNS signs. Cardiovascular collapse may be the
, FIRST presentation.
● AFE Reality: While Atropine, Ondansetron, and Ketorolac (A-OK) are discussed for
Amniotic Fluid Embolism (AFE), 2026/2027 standards dictate they must never delay the
immediate correction of hypoxia, hypotension, and profound hyperfibrinolysis via standard
ACLS and MTP.
PART II: THE ELITE TEST BANK
Foundational Syntax & Application (Questions 1–28)
Q1: A 32-year-old parturient at 38 weeks gestation presents for an elective cesarean delivery.
Which physiological respiratory change is MOST responsible for the rapid oxygen desaturation
observed during periods of apnea in this patient? A) Increased minute ventilation driven by
progesterone. B) A 20% reduction in Functional Residual Capacity (FRC). C) Decreased
maternal oxygen consumption. D) Leftward shift of the maternal oxyhemoglobin dissociation
curve.
● The Answer: B (A 20% reduction in Functional Residual Capacity (FRC).)
● Distractor Analysis: A, C, and D are incorrect: While minute ventilation increases, it
does not cause rapid desaturation. Oxygen consumption actually increases in pregnancy,
and the maternal curve shifts right (Bohr effect) to offload oxygen to the fetus.
The Mentor's Analysis: The gravid uterus pushes the diaphragm cephalad, drastically cutting
the oxygen reserve (FRC). Professional Intuition: Preoxygenation in obstetrics is not a luxury;
it is your only lifeline against catastrophic hypoxemia during a difficult airway.
Q2: According to the 2026 CMQCC V2.0 Sepsis Toolkit, which of the following is an absolute
confirmation of End Organ Injury (EOI) in a pregnant patient suspected of sepsis? A) Maternal
heart rate of 115 bpm. B) Oral temperature of 38.2°C. C) Serum creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL. D)
White blood cell count of 16,000/mm3.
● The Answer: C (Serum creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, B, and D are incorrect: Tachycardia, fever, and leukocytosis are
part of the initial Step 1 screening, but they are often masked or mimicked by normal
labor. Step 2 (Confirmation) requires proof of EOI, such as Cr ≥ 1.2 mg/dL.
The Mentor's Analysis: Normal pregnancy lowers creatinine due to increased GFR. A "normal"
adult creatinine of 1.0 to 1.3 in a parturient is actually acute renal failure. Professional
Intuition: Never apply non-pregnant lab reference ranges to a laboring patient.
Q3: A laboring patient with preeclampsia requires general anesthesia for an emergent
cesarean. To blunt the hypertensive response to laryngoscopy, you administer intravenous
remifentanil. What is the MOST LIKELY neonatal consequence? A) Profound neonatal chest
wall rigidity. B) Transient neonatal respiratory depression requiring brief support. C) Permanent
neonatal bradycardia. D) Complete blockade of fetal cortisol production.
● The Answer: B (Transient neonatal respiratory depression requiring brief support.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, C, and D are incorrect: Remifentanil is rapidly metabolized by
non-specific plasma esterases in both mother and fetus, meaning its effects are fleeting.
Chest wall rigidity is a maternal risk of rapid opioid push, not a primary fetal presentation
here.
The Mentor's Analysis: Remifentanil crosses the placenta but is metabolized so quickly that
neonatal effects are easily managed. Professional Intuition: Always inform the neonatal
resuscitation team when maternal opioids are used, but do not withhold necessary maternal
,hemodynamic control out of fear of transient fetal effects.
Q4: A 28-year-old parturient receives a prophylactic vasopressor infusion during a spinal
anesthetic for cesarean delivery. Studies comparing norepinephrine to phenylephrine in this
setting demonstrate which of the following regarding fetal outcomes? A) Norepinephrine causes
severe fetal acidemia. B) Phenylephrine significantly improves umbilical artery pH. C) There is
no significant difference in umbilical cord pH or base excess between the two agents. D)
Norepinephrine strictly prevents fetal hypoxia.
● The Answer: C (There is no significant difference in umbilical cord pH or base excess
between the two agents.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, B, and D are incorrect: While norepinephrine better preserves
maternal heart rate and cardiac output compared to the reflex bradycardia of
phenylephrine, extensive 2026 data shows equal neonatal acid-base outcomes.
The Mentor's Analysis: Both drugs constrict the maternal vasculature to maintain placental
perfusion pressure. Professional Intuition: Choose the vasopressor based on maternal cardiac
status (HR/CO), knowing the fetus will tolerate either if maternal blood pressure is maintained.
Q5: You are placing an epidural in an obese patient (BMI 45) in early labor. According to 2026
standards, which technique is highly recommended to establish rapid, reliable analgesia while
confirming block success? A) Combined Spinal-Epidural (CSE) or Dural Puncture Epidural
(DPE). B) Immediate Continuous Epidural Infusion (CEI) of bupivacaine 0.5%. C) Administration
of systemic ketamine prior to needle insertion. D) Blind epidural catheter advancement to 10 cm
in the epidural space.
● The Answer: A (Combined Spinal-Epidural (CSE) or Dural Puncture Epidural (DPE).)
● Distractor Analysis: B, C, and D are incorrect: CEI with strong local anesthetics causes
motor block. Advancing the catheter too far guarantees unilateral or intravascular
migration. DPE provides superior sacral spread without the immediate motor block of a
CSE.
The Mentor's Analysis: In the obese parturient, replacing a failed epidural during an
emergency is highly dangerous. Professional Intuition: Use DPE or CSE to "prove" the space
and ensure bilateral coverage early. An unverified epidural in a high-BMI patient is a trap waiting
to spring.
Q6: A patient with known Cardiovascular Disease (CVD) presents for prenatal counseling. You
utilize the CARPREG II index to stratify her risk. She scores a 5. What is her predicted risk of a
primary maternal cardiac event? A) 5% B) 15% C) 22% D) 41%
● The Answer: D (41%)
● Distractor Analysis: A, B, and C are incorrect: CARPREG II risk stratification dictates:
0-1 pt (5%), 2 pts (10%), 3 pts (15%), 4 pts (22%), and >4 pts (41%).
The Mentor's Analysis: Cardiac disease in pregnancy does not scale linearly; it compounds.
Professional Intuition: A CARPREG II score over 4 demands a fully integrated,
multi-disciplinary Pregnancy Heart Team present for delivery.
Q7: During a cesarean delivery under spinal anesthesia, the patient complains of sharp, visceral
pain upon exteriorization of the uterus. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE
first-line intravenous adjuvant to manage this breakthrough pain while avoiding general
anesthesia? A) Dexmedetomidine. B) Ketamine. C) Fentanyl. D) Midazolam.
● The Answer: C (Fentanyl.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, B, and D are incorrect: Fentanyl is the recommended first-line
agent for acute visceral breakthrough pain. Ketamine and dexmedetomidine are
secondary agents. Midazolam treats anxiety, not pain, and risks paradoxical agitation if
the patient is hurting.
, The Mentor's Analysis: Visceral pain from peritoneal traction often breaches a solid T4
somatic block. Professional Intuition: Hit the mu-receptors with a short-acting opioid first. If
you push sedatives on a patient in severe pain, you will lose their airway and their cooperation
simultaneously.
Q8: Following an inadvertent dural puncture with a 17-gauge Tuohy needle, the patient
develops a severe Post-Dural Puncture Headache (PDPH). She requests an Epidural Blood
Patch (EBP). According to 2026 multi-society guidelines, what is the recommended volume of
autologous blood to inject? A) 5-10 mL. B) 15-20 mL. C) 25-30 mL. D) Inject until the patient
complains of severe back pain, regardless of volume.
● The Answer: B (15-20 mL.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, C, and D are incorrect: 5-10 mL is insufficient for a sustained
tamponade effect. Volumes >30 mL increase the risk of back pain and radiculopathy
without improving efficacy. Injecting blindly until severe pain is an outdated and dangerous
metric.
The Mentor's Analysis: The EBP works via immediate mass effect and delayed coagulation.
Professional Intuition: Respect the 20 mL ceiling. You are patching a leak, not performing a
high-pressure epidurogram.
Q9: A parturient with a history of severe opioid use disorder is on maintenance buprenorphine.
She requests labor analgesia. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE strategy for her neuraxial
labor block? A) Discontinue buprenorphine immediately and use high-dose epidural fentanyl. B)
Maintain the buprenorphine and proceed with a standard local anesthetic/opioid epidural
infusion. C) Refuse neuraxial techniques to avoid drug seeking behavior. D) Administer IV
nalbuphine to complement the block.
● The Answer: B (Maintain the buprenorphine and proceed with a standard local
anesthetic/opioid epidural infusion.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, C, and D are incorrect: Stopping buprenorphine triggers acute
withdrawal, jeopardizing fetal stability. Nalbuphine is a mixed agonist-antagonist that will
precipitate withdrawal in opioid-dependent patients.
The Mentor's Analysis: Opioid-dependent parturients have a vastly increased pain sensitivity
(hyperalgesia) and require robust regional anesthesia. Professional Intuition: Never stop the
maintenance drug. Rely heavily on the local anesthetic component of your epidural, not just the
opioids, to achieve comfort.
Q10: A patient requests remifentanil patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for labor because she is
terrified of needles in her back. What is a mandatory safety requirement for this technique per
2026 standards? A) Continuous background infusion of remifentanil to ensure baseline comfort.
B) One-to-one nursing care and continuous pulse oximetry. C) Concomitant use of nitrous oxide.
D) Arterial line placement for continuous blood pressure monitoring.
● The Answer: B (One-to-one nursing care and continuous pulse oximetry.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, C, and D are incorrect: Background infusions of remifentanil are
strictly avoided due to profound respiratory depression risk. Nitrous oxide combined with
remifentanil synergistically increases apnea risk.
The Mentor's Analysis: Remifentanil provides great relief but walks a razor's edge with apnea.
Professional Intuition: The machine clicks, the patient sleeps, the breathing stops. Without a
dedicated set of eyes and a pulse oximeter, this technique is lethal.
Q11: A 39-week parturient with a BMI of 50 requires a cesarean delivery for fetal distress. You
plan a spinal anesthetic. What pharmacokinetic change dictates the spread of the local
anesthetic in this patient compared to a non-obese parturient? A) Increased CSF volume dilutes
the drug. B) Epidural venous engorgement compresses the thecal space, decreasing CSF
Anesthesia Test Bank:
2026/2027 Standards
PART 0: THE NAVIGATOR
● PART I: THE PRIMER
○ The "Welcome to the Big Leagues" Hook
○ The "Critical Action" Cheat Sheet
● PART II: THE ELITE TEST BANK
○ Foundational Syntax & Application (Questions 1–28): Core Physiology,
Pharmacology, and 2026/2027 Guidelines.
○ Professional Simulation (Questions 29–58): Immediate Clinical Actions, Crisis
Recognition, and Equipment Optimization.
○ Grandmaster Synthesis (Questions 59–88): High-Stakes Multivariable Crises,
Complex Pathologies, and Morbidity Aversion.
PART I: THE PRIMER
Welcome to the big leagues. This is not about memorizing textbook tables; this is about
intercepting high-stakes maternal and fetal catastrophes before they occur. Using this test bank
will forge your academic knowledge into razor-sharp professional intuition, allowing you to
synthesize 2026/2027 best practices instantly when the monitors alarm and the room looks to
you for direction.
The "Critical Action" Cheat Sheet:
● The Sepsis 2-Step (CMQCC V2.0): Pregnancy alters baseline vitals. Do not rely on old
SIRS criteria. Screen first, then confirm via End Organ Injury (MAP < 65, Cr ≥ 1.2, Plt <
100k, Bilirubin > 2).
● Hemorrhage Control (CMQCC V3.0): Abandon estimated blood loss. Use Quantitative
Blood Loss (QBL). Tranexamic acid (TXA) is an early, obligatory adjunct, not a last resort.
● The Airway Hard Deck (ASA 2026): Limit intubation attempts to two. If facing a Can't
Intubate, Can't Oxygenate (CICO) scenario in a pregnant patient, the immediate definitive
airway is a perimortem cesarean delivery to relieve aortocaval compression and restore
maternal functional residual capacity.
● LAST in Pregnancy: Gestational physiology increases susceptibility to Local Anesthetic
Systemic Toxicity. Labor pain masks early CNS signs. Cardiovascular collapse may be the
, FIRST presentation.
● AFE Reality: While Atropine, Ondansetron, and Ketorolac (A-OK) are discussed for
Amniotic Fluid Embolism (AFE), 2026/2027 standards dictate they must never delay the
immediate correction of hypoxia, hypotension, and profound hyperfibrinolysis via standard
ACLS and MTP.
PART II: THE ELITE TEST BANK
Foundational Syntax & Application (Questions 1–28)
Q1: A 32-year-old parturient at 38 weeks gestation presents for an elective cesarean delivery.
Which physiological respiratory change is MOST responsible for the rapid oxygen desaturation
observed during periods of apnea in this patient? A) Increased minute ventilation driven by
progesterone. B) A 20% reduction in Functional Residual Capacity (FRC). C) Decreased
maternal oxygen consumption. D) Leftward shift of the maternal oxyhemoglobin dissociation
curve.
● The Answer: B (A 20% reduction in Functional Residual Capacity (FRC).)
● Distractor Analysis: A, C, and D are incorrect: While minute ventilation increases, it
does not cause rapid desaturation. Oxygen consumption actually increases in pregnancy,
and the maternal curve shifts right (Bohr effect) to offload oxygen to the fetus.
The Mentor's Analysis: The gravid uterus pushes the diaphragm cephalad, drastically cutting
the oxygen reserve (FRC). Professional Intuition: Preoxygenation in obstetrics is not a luxury;
it is your only lifeline against catastrophic hypoxemia during a difficult airway.
Q2: According to the 2026 CMQCC V2.0 Sepsis Toolkit, which of the following is an absolute
confirmation of End Organ Injury (EOI) in a pregnant patient suspected of sepsis? A) Maternal
heart rate of 115 bpm. B) Oral temperature of 38.2°C. C) Serum creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL. D)
White blood cell count of 16,000/mm3.
● The Answer: C (Serum creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, B, and D are incorrect: Tachycardia, fever, and leukocytosis are
part of the initial Step 1 screening, but they are often masked or mimicked by normal
labor. Step 2 (Confirmation) requires proof of EOI, such as Cr ≥ 1.2 mg/dL.
The Mentor's Analysis: Normal pregnancy lowers creatinine due to increased GFR. A "normal"
adult creatinine of 1.0 to 1.3 in a parturient is actually acute renal failure. Professional
Intuition: Never apply non-pregnant lab reference ranges to a laboring patient.
Q3: A laboring patient with preeclampsia requires general anesthesia for an emergent
cesarean. To blunt the hypertensive response to laryngoscopy, you administer intravenous
remifentanil. What is the MOST LIKELY neonatal consequence? A) Profound neonatal chest
wall rigidity. B) Transient neonatal respiratory depression requiring brief support. C) Permanent
neonatal bradycardia. D) Complete blockade of fetal cortisol production.
● The Answer: B (Transient neonatal respiratory depression requiring brief support.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, C, and D are incorrect: Remifentanil is rapidly metabolized by
non-specific plasma esterases in both mother and fetus, meaning its effects are fleeting.
Chest wall rigidity is a maternal risk of rapid opioid push, not a primary fetal presentation
here.
The Mentor's Analysis: Remifentanil crosses the placenta but is metabolized so quickly that
neonatal effects are easily managed. Professional Intuition: Always inform the neonatal
resuscitation team when maternal opioids are used, but do not withhold necessary maternal
,hemodynamic control out of fear of transient fetal effects.
Q4: A 28-year-old parturient receives a prophylactic vasopressor infusion during a spinal
anesthetic for cesarean delivery. Studies comparing norepinephrine to phenylephrine in this
setting demonstrate which of the following regarding fetal outcomes? A) Norepinephrine causes
severe fetal acidemia. B) Phenylephrine significantly improves umbilical artery pH. C) There is
no significant difference in umbilical cord pH or base excess between the two agents. D)
Norepinephrine strictly prevents fetal hypoxia.
● The Answer: C (There is no significant difference in umbilical cord pH or base excess
between the two agents.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, B, and D are incorrect: While norepinephrine better preserves
maternal heart rate and cardiac output compared to the reflex bradycardia of
phenylephrine, extensive 2026 data shows equal neonatal acid-base outcomes.
The Mentor's Analysis: Both drugs constrict the maternal vasculature to maintain placental
perfusion pressure. Professional Intuition: Choose the vasopressor based on maternal cardiac
status (HR/CO), knowing the fetus will tolerate either if maternal blood pressure is maintained.
Q5: You are placing an epidural in an obese patient (BMI 45) in early labor. According to 2026
standards, which technique is highly recommended to establish rapid, reliable analgesia while
confirming block success? A) Combined Spinal-Epidural (CSE) or Dural Puncture Epidural
(DPE). B) Immediate Continuous Epidural Infusion (CEI) of bupivacaine 0.5%. C) Administration
of systemic ketamine prior to needle insertion. D) Blind epidural catheter advancement to 10 cm
in the epidural space.
● The Answer: A (Combined Spinal-Epidural (CSE) or Dural Puncture Epidural (DPE).)
● Distractor Analysis: B, C, and D are incorrect: CEI with strong local anesthetics causes
motor block. Advancing the catheter too far guarantees unilateral or intravascular
migration. DPE provides superior sacral spread without the immediate motor block of a
CSE.
The Mentor's Analysis: In the obese parturient, replacing a failed epidural during an
emergency is highly dangerous. Professional Intuition: Use DPE or CSE to "prove" the space
and ensure bilateral coverage early. An unverified epidural in a high-BMI patient is a trap waiting
to spring.
Q6: A patient with known Cardiovascular Disease (CVD) presents for prenatal counseling. You
utilize the CARPREG II index to stratify her risk. She scores a 5. What is her predicted risk of a
primary maternal cardiac event? A) 5% B) 15% C) 22% D) 41%
● The Answer: D (41%)
● Distractor Analysis: A, B, and C are incorrect: CARPREG II risk stratification dictates:
0-1 pt (5%), 2 pts (10%), 3 pts (15%), 4 pts (22%), and >4 pts (41%).
The Mentor's Analysis: Cardiac disease in pregnancy does not scale linearly; it compounds.
Professional Intuition: A CARPREG II score over 4 demands a fully integrated,
multi-disciplinary Pregnancy Heart Team present for delivery.
Q7: During a cesarean delivery under spinal anesthesia, the patient complains of sharp, visceral
pain upon exteriorization of the uterus. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE
first-line intravenous adjuvant to manage this breakthrough pain while avoiding general
anesthesia? A) Dexmedetomidine. B) Ketamine. C) Fentanyl. D) Midazolam.
● The Answer: C (Fentanyl.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, B, and D are incorrect: Fentanyl is the recommended first-line
agent for acute visceral breakthrough pain. Ketamine and dexmedetomidine are
secondary agents. Midazolam treats anxiety, not pain, and risks paradoxical agitation if
the patient is hurting.
, The Mentor's Analysis: Visceral pain from peritoneal traction often breaches a solid T4
somatic block. Professional Intuition: Hit the mu-receptors with a short-acting opioid first. If
you push sedatives on a patient in severe pain, you will lose their airway and their cooperation
simultaneously.
Q8: Following an inadvertent dural puncture with a 17-gauge Tuohy needle, the patient
develops a severe Post-Dural Puncture Headache (PDPH). She requests an Epidural Blood
Patch (EBP). According to 2026 multi-society guidelines, what is the recommended volume of
autologous blood to inject? A) 5-10 mL. B) 15-20 mL. C) 25-30 mL. D) Inject until the patient
complains of severe back pain, regardless of volume.
● The Answer: B (15-20 mL.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, C, and D are incorrect: 5-10 mL is insufficient for a sustained
tamponade effect. Volumes >30 mL increase the risk of back pain and radiculopathy
without improving efficacy. Injecting blindly until severe pain is an outdated and dangerous
metric.
The Mentor's Analysis: The EBP works via immediate mass effect and delayed coagulation.
Professional Intuition: Respect the 20 mL ceiling. You are patching a leak, not performing a
high-pressure epidurogram.
Q9: A parturient with a history of severe opioid use disorder is on maintenance buprenorphine.
She requests labor analgesia. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE strategy for her neuraxial
labor block? A) Discontinue buprenorphine immediately and use high-dose epidural fentanyl. B)
Maintain the buprenorphine and proceed with a standard local anesthetic/opioid epidural
infusion. C) Refuse neuraxial techniques to avoid drug seeking behavior. D) Administer IV
nalbuphine to complement the block.
● The Answer: B (Maintain the buprenorphine and proceed with a standard local
anesthetic/opioid epidural infusion.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, C, and D are incorrect: Stopping buprenorphine triggers acute
withdrawal, jeopardizing fetal stability. Nalbuphine is a mixed agonist-antagonist that will
precipitate withdrawal in opioid-dependent patients.
The Mentor's Analysis: Opioid-dependent parturients have a vastly increased pain sensitivity
(hyperalgesia) and require robust regional anesthesia. Professional Intuition: Never stop the
maintenance drug. Rely heavily on the local anesthetic component of your epidural, not just the
opioids, to achieve comfort.
Q10: A patient requests remifentanil patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for labor because she is
terrified of needles in her back. What is a mandatory safety requirement for this technique per
2026 standards? A) Continuous background infusion of remifentanil to ensure baseline comfort.
B) One-to-one nursing care and continuous pulse oximetry. C) Concomitant use of nitrous oxide.
D) Arterial line placement for continuous blood pressure monitoring.
● The Answer: B (One-to-one nursing care and continuous pulse oximetry.)
● Distractor Analysis: A, C, and D are incorrect: Background infusions of remifentanil are
strictly avoided due to profound respiratory depression risk. Nitrous oxide combined with
remifentanil synergistically increases apnea risk.
The Mentor's Analysis: Remifentanil provides great relief but walks a razor's edge with apnea.
Professional Intuition: The machine clicks, the patient sleeps, the breathing stops. Without a
dedicated set of eyes and a pulse oximeter, this technique is lethal.
Q11: A 39-week parturient with a BMI of 50 requires a cesarean delivery for fetal distress. You
plan a spinal anesthetic. What pharmacokinetic change dictates the spread of the local
anesthetic in this patient compared to a non-obese parturient? A) Increased CSF volume dilutes
the drug. B) Epidural venous engorgement compresses the thecal space, decreasing CSF
