Leifer Intro to Maternity & Pediatric
Ch 7 Exam Review Guide – Questions
& Answers (2026/2027)
EXAM
1. A nurse is reviewing the process of meiosis with a client. Which statement by
the client indicates a correct understanding of this process?
a) "Meiosis results in two diploid cells that are identical to the parent cell."
b) "Meiosis occurs in somatic cells to allow for growth and repair."
c) "Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes by half to form gametes."
d) "Meiosis is the process of crossing over that occurs only in abnormal cells."
Answer: c
Rationale: Meiosis is the process of cell division that occurs in the gonads to produce
gametes (egg and sperm). It reduces the chromosome number from diploid (46) to
haploid (23). Options a and b describe mitosis. Crossing over occurs in normal meiosis.
2. A client asks why their baby has blue eyes when both parents have brown eyes.
The nurse explains this is due to:
a) A dominant trait
b) A chromosomal abnormality
c) A recessive trait
d) A mutation during mitosis
Answer: c
Rationale: Brown eyes are typically dominant (B) and blue eyes are recessive (b). If both
parents are heterozygous (Bb), they have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having a
child with blue eyes (bb).
3. A nurse is preparing a couple for genetic counseling. What is the primary goal
of genetic counseling?
,a) To diagnose genetic disorders before pregnancy
b) To provide information and support for informed decision-making
c) To prevent all genetic disorders from occurring
d) To recommend termination of affected pregnancies
Answer: b
Rationale: The goal of genetic counseling is to provide accurate information about
risks, testing, and options in a non-directive manner, allowing clients to make
autonomous, informed decisions.
4. A pregnant client is scheduled for chorionic villus sampling (CVS). The nurse
explains that this test is performed to:
a) Assess the fetal heart rate for anomalies
b) Detect neural tube defects like spina bifida
c) Obtain amniotic fluid for alpha-fetoprotein levels
d) Obtain a sample of placental tissue for chromosomal analysis
Answer: d
Rationale: CVS involves aspirating a small sample of chorionic villus tissue from the
placenta for chromosomal, genetic, or biochemical analysis. It is performed earlier than
amniocentesis (10-13 weeks).
5. The nurse is providing education to a client who will undergo amniocentesis at
16 weeks gestation. What statement by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
a) "I should drink extra fluids the day before the test."
b) "I might feel some cramping after the procedure."
c) "I will need to have a full bladder for the procedure."
d) "The results will help identify if my baby has Down syndrome."
Answer: c
Rationale: For amniocentesis, the bladder should be empty to reduce the risk of
bladder puncture. A full bladder is typically required for ultrasound guidance before the
procedure to visualize the fetus, but it is emptied immediately prior to the needle
,insertion. (Note: Some protocols use an empty bladder; the key point is that a full
bladder during the tap increases risk.)
6. A nurse is discussing carrier screening with a couple of Ashkenazi Jewish
descent. Which disorder is the nurse most likely to mention?
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Tay-Sachs disease
d) Hemophilia
Answer: c
Rationale: Tay-Sachs disease has a higher carrier frequency in the Ashkenazi Jewish
population. Sickle cell is common in African descent; Cystic fibrosis is common in
Caucasians.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a fetus with anencephaly. The nurse
understands that this is a:
a) Chromosomal disorder
b) Neural tube defect
c) Metabolic disorder
d) Single-gene dominant disorder
Answer: b
Rationale: Anencephaly is a neural tube defect resulting from failure of the neural tube
to close during embryonic development. It is multifactorial, often linked to folic acid
deficiency.
8. A nurse is explaining the difference between genetic screening and diagnostic
testing. Which statement is correct?
a) Screening confirms a diagnosis; diagnostic testing identifies risk.
b) Screening identifies individuals at risk; diagnostic testing confirms or rules out a
condition.
c) Screening is invasive; diagnostic testing is non-invasive.
d) Screening is only done after birth; diagnostic testing is only done prenatally.
, Answer: b
Rationale: Screening (e.g., maternal serum screening) identifies those at higher risk who
may need further evaluation. Diagnostic testing (e.g., CVS, amniocentesis) provides a
definitive diagnosis.
9. A nurse is reviewing a pedigree chart. A horizontal line connecting a circle and a
square indicates:
a) Siblings
b) A marriage or union
c) Offspring
d) Twins
Answer: b
Rationale: In a pedigree, a horizontal line connects a male (square) and female (circle)
to indicate a mating or union. Offspring are shown by vertical lines.
10. A client has a family history of Huntington’s disease (autosomal dominant).
What is the chance that the client inherited the gene?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 100%
Answer: c
Rationale: Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder. If one parent has
the gene (heterozygous), each child has a 50% chance of inheriting the affected allele.
11. A nurse is caring for a newborn with ambiguous genitalia. The priority nursing
action is to:
a) Immediately assign a sex to the infant to avoid confusion.
b) Avoid assigning a gender and instruct family to delay naming the infant.
c) Tell the parents the baby is a boy until genetic testing is complete.
d) Document the infant as "it" in the medical record.
Answer: b
Ch 7 Exam Review Guide – Questions
& Answers (2026/2027)
EXAM
1. A nurse is reviewing the process of meiosis with a client. Which statement by
the client indicates a correct understanding of this process?
a) "Meiosis results in two diploid cells that are identical to the parent cell."
b) "Meiosis occurs in somatic cells to allow for growth and repair."
c) "Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes by half to form gametes."
d) "Meiosis is the process of crossing over that occurs only in abnormal cells."
Answer: c
Rationale: Meiosis is the process of cell division that occurs in the gonads to produce
gametes (egg and sperm). It reduces the chromosome number from diploid (46) to
haploid (23). Options a and b describe mitosis. Crossing over occurs in normal meiosis.
2. A client asks why their baby has blue eyes when both parents have brown eyes.
The nurse explains this is due to:
a) A dominant trait
b) A chromosomal abnormality
c) A recessive trait
d) A mutation during mitosis
Answer: c
Rationale: Brown eyes are typically dominant (B) and blue eyes are recessive (b). If both
parents are heterozygous (Bb), they have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having a
child with blue eyes (bb).
3. A nurse is preparing a couple for genetic counseling. What is the primary goal
of genetic counseling?
,a) To diagnose genetic disorders before pregnancy
b) To provide information and support for informed decision-making
c) To prevent all genetic disorders from occurring
d) To recommend termination of affected pregnancies
Answer: b
Rationale: The goal of genetic counseling is to provide accurate information about
risks, testing, and options in a non-directive manner, allowing clients to make
autonomous, informed decisions.
4. A pregnant client is scheduled for chorionic villus sampling (CVS). The nurse
explains that this test is performed to:
a) Assess the fetal heart rate for anomalies
b) Detect neural tube defects like spina bifida
c) Obtain amniotic fluid for alpha-fetoprotein levels
d) Obtain a sample of placental tissue for chromosomal analysis
Answer: d
Rationale: CVS involves aspirating a small sample of chorionic villus tissue from the
placenta for chromosomal, genetic, or biochemical analysis. It is performed earlier than
amniocentesis (10-13 weeks).
5. The nurse is providing education to a client who will undergo amniocentesis at
16 weeks gestation. What statement by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
a) "I should drink extra fluids the day before the test."
b) "I might feel some cramping after the procedure."
c) "I will need to have a full bladder for the procedure."
d) "The results will help identify if my baby has Down syndrome."
Answer: c
Rationale: For amniocentesis, the bladder should be empty to reduce the risk of
bladder puncture. A full bladder is typically required for ultrasound guidance before the
procedure to visualize the fetus, but it is emptied immediately prior to the needle
,insertion. (Note: Some protocols use an empty bladder; the key point is that a full
bladder during the tap increases risk.)
6. A nurse is discussing carrier screening with a couple of Ashkenazi Jewish
descent. Which disorder is the nurse most likely to mention?
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Tay-Sachs disease
d) Hemophilia
Answer: c
Rationale: Tay-Sachs disease has a higher carrier frequency in the Ashkenazi Jewish
population. Sickle cell is common in African descent; Cystic fibrosis is common in
Caucasians.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a fetus with anencephaly. The nurse
understands that this is a:
a) Chromosomal disorder
b) Neural tube defect
c) Metabolic disorder
d) Single-gene dominant disorder
Answer: b
Rationale: Anencephaly is a neural tube defect resulting from failure of the neural tube
to close during embryonic development. It is multifactorial, often linked to folic acid
deficiency.
8. A nurse is explaining the difference between genetic screening and diagnostic
testing. Which statement is correct?
a) Screening confirms a diagnosis; diagnostic testing identifies risk.
b) Screening identifies individuals at risk; diagnostic testing confirms or rules out a
condition.
c) Screening is invasive; diagnostic testing is non-invasive.
d) Screening is only done after birth; diagnostic testing is only done prenatally.
, Answer: b
Rationale: Screening (e.g., maternal serum screening) identifies those at higher risk who
may need further evaluation. Diagnostic testing (e.g., CVS, amniocentesis) provides a
definitive diagnosis.
9. A nurse is reviewing a pedigree chart. A horizontal line connecting a circle and a
square indicates:
a) Siblings
b) A marriage or union
c) Offspring
d) Twins
Answer: b
Rationale: In a pedigree, a horizontal line connects a male (square) and female (circle)
to indicate a mating or union. Offspring are shown by vertical lines.
10. A client has a family history of Huntington’s disease (autosomal dominant).
What is the chance that the client inherited the gene?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 100%
Answer: c
Rationale: Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder. If one parent has
the gene (heterozygous), each child has a 50% chance of inheriting the affected allele.
11. A nurse is caring for a newborn with ambiguous genitalia. The priority nursing
action is to:
a) Immediately assign a sex to the infant to avoid confusion.
b) Avoid assigning a gender and instruct family to delay naming the infant.
c) Tell the parents the baby is a boy until genetic testing is complete.
d) Document the infant as "it" in the medical record.
Answer: b
