Exam 2 V2: BIOS255 / BIOS 255 | Anatomy & Physiology III with Lab | Latest 2026–2027 Update | Questions & Verified Answers | Grade A – Chamberlain

tps:// Exam 2 V2: BIOS255 / BIOS 255 | Anatomy & Physiology III with Lab | Latest 2026–2027 Update | Questions & Verified Answers | Grade A – Chamberlain Q: The place where two bones meet is called ______. Answer articulation Q: Growth from within cartilage is called ______. Answer interstitial growth Q: Cartilage is what type of tissue? Answer connective Q: In interstitial growth of cartilage ______. Answer news cells and new matrix are produced Q: Chondrocytes occupy small spaces called Answer lacunae Q: Which statements characterize cartilage? It supports soft tissues It provides a gliding surface at joints. It provides a model for the formation of bones. It secretes hormones related to bone formation. It is the site of blood cell formation. Answer It supports soft tissues It provides a gliding surface at joints. It provides a model for the formation of bones. Q: A joint in the body is also called a(n) Answer articulation Q: In appositional growth, cartilage grows ______. Answer when stem cells at the perichondrium divide Q: Growth along the periphery of cartilage is called ___ growth. Answer appositional Q: Place the following steps in order to summarize interstitial growth of cartilage. Answer 1. chondrocyte in lacunae undergoes mitosis 2. two cells occupy one lacunae 3. two cells in one lacunae begin to produce new matrix Q: The cells that produce the matrix of cartilage are called Answer chondroblasts Q: In bone, smooth muscle tissue is found in ______. Answer blood vessels of bone Q: Place the following steps in order to summarize appositional growth of cartilage. Answer 1. stem cells in the perichondrium undergo mitosis 2. committed cells become chondroblasts 3. new matrix is produced at the periphery of the cartilage Q: Which is a function of bone? Answer Q: Which tissue types are found in bones? Nervous tissue Blood Osseous connective tissue Cardiac muscle Answer Nervous tissue Blood Osseous connective tissue Q: Most of the body's reserves of ______ and phosphate are stored and released by bone. Answer calcium Q: The elongated cylindrical shaft of a long bone is called its ______. Answer diaphysis Q: Functions of bone include ______. . mineral storage secretion of insulin support blood cell formation protection Answer mineral storage support blood cell formation protection Q: The expanded end of a long bone is called Answer epiphysis Q: The mineral called ____ is stored by the bone and is needed for ATP production. Answer phosphate Q: Which statements characterize articular cartilage? It covers a diaphysis. It functions to reduce friction in joints. It is composed of hyaline cartilage. It is composed of fibrocartilage. Answer It covers an epiphysis. It functions to reduce friction in joints. It is composed of hyaline cartilage. It covers an epiphysis. Q: The ______ provides the major weight support of a long bone. Answer diaphysis Q: Which statements characterize the periosteum? It functions to anchor blood vessels to the surface of bones. It is composed of dense irregular connective tissue. It covers the outer surface of the diaphysis of a long bone. It is directly beneath articular cartilage. It helps to heal bone fractures Answer It functions to anchor blood vessels to the surface of bones. It is composed of dense irregular connective tissue. It covers the outer surface of the diaphysis of a long bone. It helps to heal bone fractures. Q: The epiphysis of a long bone closest to the body trunk is the ______ epiphysis. Answer proximal Q: The bone structure labeled B, which wraps around the bone in the figure, is the Answer periosteum Q: A thin layer of hyaline cartilage covering an epiphysis of a long bone is called Answer articular cartilage Q: When osteoblasts become entrapped in the matrix they produce, they become cells called Answer osteocytes Q: Based on shape, bones that have a length about equal to their width are classified as ______ bones. Answer short Q: Mature bone cells are called Answer osteocytes Q: A tough fibrous layer covering the outer surface of a long bone is called the ______. Answer periosteum Q: ______ are large phagocytic cells found in bone. Answer osteoclasts Q: When osteoblast activity out paces osteoclast activity, bone mass ______. Answer increases Osteoblasts function to ______. Answer bone formation/produce osteoid Which statements characterize osteocytes? They maintain bone matrix. They break down bone matrix. They secrete osteoid. They reside in lacunae. Answer They maintain bone matrix. They reside in lacunae. Which statement(s) characterize osteoclasts? They secrete osteoid. They have ruffled borders. They are phagocytic. They reabsorb bone matrix. They secrete hydrochloric acid. They have ruffled borders. They are phagocytic. They reabsorb bone matrix. They secrete hydrochloric acid. Osteoporosis is characterized by a significant loss in bone mass. What cell type is less active than normal during this disease? osteoblasts The formation and development of bone is ossification An osteon is the basic functional and structural microscopic unit of compact bone The type of ossification that is also referred to as dermal ossification, is called ___ ossification intramembranous Which statements characterize endochondral ossification? Bone replaces cartilage including the articular cartilage of a long bone. The primary ossification centers form in the epiphyses of bone. Some stem cells in the perichondrium become osteoblasts. Cartilage calcifies during this process. Hyaline cartilage models form. Some stem cells in the perichondrium become osteoblasts. Cartilage calcifies during this process. Hyaline cartilage models form. Ossification begins ______. in the embryo In the structure of the epiphyseal plate, the zone farthest away from the medullary cavity of the diaphysis of a long bone is the zone of ____ resting cartilage A long bone's growth in length is called ______. interstitial growth Place the following steps of endochondral ossification in the correct order. 1. Hyaline cartilage model develops 2. periosteal bone collar 3. primary ossification center appears 4. secondary ossification center appears 5. epiphyseal plate becomes epiphyseal lines Place the zones of an epiphyseal plate in their correct order. Start with the zone closest to the epiphysis. 1. zone of resting cartilage 2. zone of proliferating cartilage 3. zone of hypertrophic cartilage 4. zone of calcified cartilage 5. zone of ossification The function of parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium levels A bone's growth in diameter is called? appositional growth Which statements characterize bone markings? They indicate sites of blood vessels entry through bone. They can sometimes be used in skeletal remains to determine a person's sex. They are sites of bone marrow l production. They are sites of articulations. They mark points of attachment for tendons and ligaments. They indicate sites of blood vessels entry through bone. They can sometimes be used in skeletal remains to determine a person's sex. They are sites of articulations. They mark points of attachment for tendons and ligaments. In endochondral ossification, the cartilage model is what type of cartilage? hyaline cartilage Which blood vessel supplies the diaphysis of a long bone? Nutrient artery In the structure of the epiphyseal plate, the zone farthest away from the medullary cavity of the diaphysis of a long bone is the zone of ______. resting cartilage Which hormone promotes calcium deposition in bone and inhibits osteoclast activity? calcitonin True or False: Bone markings on skeletal remains indicate where the soft tissue components once were. true Depressions and grooves on bones usually indicate where blood vessels and nerves travel Which are the two main divisions of the skeletal system? Appendicular skeleton Axial skeleton The appendicular skeleton consist of the bones of the____ limbs and lower limbs, as well as the ____ and pelvic girdles. upper/pectoral Which are facial bones? Palatine and lacrimal bones When you put your hand on your forehead, you are feeling which bone? frontal bone Which skeletal regions are part of the axial skeleton? Vertebral column Thoracic cage Skull A bump normally felt on the back of the head is called the external ___ protuberance occipital Which components are part of the appendicular skeleton? Pectoral girdle Upper limb Pelvic girdle Lower limb The largest foramen in the skull, visible on an inferior (basal) view, is the ______. foramen magnum Which bone helps to form the cranium of the skull? frontal bone Sutures are immovable joints forming the boundaries between the ______. cranial bones What structure is between the orbits of the eyes and superior to the bridge of the nose? Glabella Which suture can be seen in its entirety in a posterior view of the skull? lambdoid suture The orbital part of the frontal bone forms the roof of the orbit What structures are immediately adjacent the foramen magnum? Occipital condyles The superior lateral walls and roof of the cranium are formed by the ______. parietal bones Which areas of the skull are formed by the temporal bones? Floor of the cranium Inferior lateral walls Which bone helps to form the face? zygomatic bone Which opening in the petrous part of the temporal bone acts as a passageway for nerves and blood vessels supplying the inner ear? Internal acoustic meatus The brow ridges are known as the ____ superciliary arches The prominent bulge on the inferior surface of the temporal bone that acts as an anchor for neck muscles is called the ______. mastoid process When you move your occipital condyles against your vertebrae, you are ______. nodding yes The inferior lateral walls and part of the floor of the cranium are formed by the ______. temporal bone The medial portion of the sphenoid bone is called the ______. body Which part of the temporal bone houses the sensory structures of the inner ear? Petrous part The three curved depressions in the floor of the cranial cavity are called the ______. cranial fossae The zygomatic bones are commonly called ______. cheek bones The mastoid process is an anchoring site for muscles of the ______. neck Which of the following structures are enclosed by the bones and cartilage of the nasal complex? Nasal Cavity Paranasal Sinuses Which feature of the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra? Occipital condyles Which are functions of the paranasal sinuses? To lighten the weight of skull bones To provide resonance to the voice To humidify and warm inhaled air Which part of the orbit is formed by the orbital part of the frontal bone and lesser wing of the sphenoid bone? Roof of the orbit The___ fossae along the floor of the cranial cavity contain depressions for parts of the brain, grooves for blood vessels, and numerous foramina. cranial The ear ossicles are found in the petrous parts of temporal bones Which facial bone helps to form the cheek and lateral part of the orbit? zygomatic bone The bones and cartilage that enclose the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses are called the ______. nasal complex Which statement is correct? The cervical region of the vertebral column contains 7 vertebrae. The thoracic region of the vertebral column contains 5 vertebrae. The lumbar region of the vertebral column contains 12 vertebrae. The sacral region of the vertebral column contains 9 vertebrae. The coccygeal region of the vertebral column contains 7 vertebrae. The cervical region of the vertebral column contains 7 vertebrae. The paranasal ___ help to lighten the weight of certain skull bones and provides resonance to the voice. sinuses The roof of the orbit is formed by the ______. orbital plate of the frontal bone lesser wing of the sphenoid bone Which are the primary curves present in the vertebral column of a newborn? Sacral curvature Thoracic curvature Identify the auditory ossicles housed within the petrous part of the temporal bone. malleus, incus, stapes Which fontanelles close relatively soon after birth? Mastoid and sphenoidal The most inferior portion of the vertebral column is the coccyx The vertebral canal contains the spinal____ , while the intervertebral foramina allow for passage of the spinal nerves cord The thoracic cage consists of the ______. thoracic vertebrae, sternum, ribs The curves ___ are the thoracic and sacral curves. primary Which component of the thoracic cage consists of a manubrium, body, and xiphoid process? sternum The anterior, weight bearing part of each vertebra is known as the ______. body The last two pairs of false ribs lack connections with the sternum, so they are classified as ______. floating ribs Which part of the axial skeleton acts as a protective framework around the vital organs of the thorax and provides attachment points for the muscles supporting the pectoral girdles? thoracic cage Which of the following bones of the skull are formed by intramembranous ossification? Parietal bones Maxillae Mandible Frontal bone Which bone associated with the skull is an attachment site for tongue and larynx muscles? hyoid Which statements describe the false ribs? Multiple select question. They indirectly articulate with the sternum through shared costal cartilages. They directly articulate with the sternum by individual costal cartilages. They articulate with the thoracic vertebrae. They indirectly articulate with the sternum through shared costal cartilages. They articulate with the thoracic vertebrae. The flat bones of the skull, zygomatic bones, maxillae, and mandible are formed by ______. intramembranous ossification Which are bones of the appendicular skeleton? Multiple select question. Pelvic girdle Leg bones Vertebral column Hand bones Pectoral girdle Pelvic girdle Leg bones Hand bones Pectoral girdle A pectoral girdle consists of clavicle and scapula The clavicle is the only direct connection between the ____ girdle and the ____ skeleton. pectoral/axial The humerus is a bone of the ______ skeleton. appendicular How many carpal bones are in each wrist? 8 The depression between the greater and lesser tubercle is called intertubercular sulcus The cavity of the shoulder is ______, which permits a wide range of movement of the arm. shallow The clavicle extends between the manubrium of the _____ and the acromion of the _____ Blank 1: sternum Blank 2: scapula In anatomical position the radius and ulna ______. are parallel to each other Each upper limb is composed of ___ bones 30 The bones in the palm of the hand are ______. metacarpals The round process on the proximal end of the humerus that articulates with the scapula is called the ______. head In anatomical position the ulna is ______ to the radius. medial Which bone is most lateral? Multiple choice question. Trapezoid Hamate Trapezium Capitate Trapezium What are the functions of the pectoral girdle? Multiple select question. Protect internal organs Promotes lower limb mobility Promotes upper limb mobility Provide attachment sites for muscles Promotes upper limb mobility Provide attachment sites for muscles What bone is between the scaphoid and the triquetrum? lacunate Each human hand has ______ phalanges. 14 A deep depression on the lateral surface of a hip bone is called the ______. acetabulum The pelvic organs are found in the true pelvis Female acetabula are ______ than male acetabula. smaller The thumb is also known as the pollex How many bones are in the femoral region? one An os coxae is made of three fused bones, which are the ilium, the ___ and the ____. ischium/pubis The strongest and heaviest bone in the body is the ______. femur The true pelvis is ______ to the false pelvis. inferior The part of the femur between its head and shaft is called the ______ of the femur. neck Which gender has a much wider and more convex subpubic angle? female Unlike the phalanges of the second through fifth fingers, the thumb does NOT have a ____ phalax middle The trochanters of the femur are attachment sites for ______. gluteus muscles How many bones are contained in each lower limb? 30 The head of the femur is ______. spherical The condyles are on the ______ end of the femur. distal The head of the femur articulates with the ______. acetabulum (hip bone) The patella is found in the tendon of what muscle? quadriceps femoris The region of the leg from the knee to the ankle is called the ___ region crural The greater trochanter is ______ to the lesser trochanter. lateral The rough anterior surface of the tibia that can be palpated just inferior to the patella is the ____ tuberosity. tibial The medial malleolus is found on the ______ end of the tibia. distal Smooth, oval articulating surfaces on the distal and inferior surface of the femur are ______. condyles List the bones of the ankle/foot in order from proximal to distal. 1. tarsals 2. metatarsals 3. phalanges the kneecap is the ____ patella The crural region contains the tibia and ... fibula The "shin" is the anterior border of the ______. tibia The most lateral metatarsal bone is identified as number ______. 5 The distal medial process of the tibia is called the ______. medial malleolus The big (great) toe is called the ______. hallux The tarsal bones of the foot are analogous with the ______ bones of the wrist carpal The sole of the foot is made of ______ bones. metatarsal Each foot has __ phalanges 14 A joint. or articulation, can be between bones and ______. teeth Which is the most mobile joint? shoulder A ______ joint occurs where bones are held together by dense regular connective tissue. fibrous A(n) ______ is an immobile joint. synarthrosis Which is a syndesmosis? Interosseous membrane True or false: Bones are said to articulate with each other at a joint. true There is a 'trade off' between ______ and ______ in every joint. mobility, stability Bones are joined by ______ in cartilaginous joints. cartilage How is a gomphosis characterized in terms of movement? Synarthrotic Which are locations of synchondroses? Between rib/sternum Epiphyseal plate Between vertebrae Between pelvic bones Between rib/sternum Epiphyseal plate The immobile joint between the bones of the skull is called a(n) suture Which are classified as synovial joints? Multiple select question. Bodies of intervertebral joints Temporomandibular Glenohumeral Knee joint Elbow Temporomandibular Glenohumeral Knee joint Elbow Which type of joint would one find between the radius and the ulna? Syndesmosis All synovial joints are_____ , meaning that they can freely move, though some are more mobile than others. diarthroses Which of the following are categorized as a symphysis? Multiple choice question. Synovial joints Suture Synchondrosis Intervertebral discs Intervertebral discs Functionally, all synovial joints are classified as diarthroses The bones in a synovial joint are separated by a space called a(n) _____. joint cavity _______ rotation turns the anterior surface of the femur or humerus laterally. lateral Fibrocartilage of a ______ resists compression and acts as a shock absorber. symphysis What is the special movement of the thumb across the palm that permits grasping and holding of an object? opposition _______ rotation turns the anterior surface of the femur or humerus medially. medial Name the joint between the atlas and the dens of the axis. Atlantoaxial The glenohumeral joint is between the head of the humerus and the ____ cavity of the scapula. glenoid The glenohumeral joint is strengthened by the ______ muscles surrounding it. rotator cuff What type of joint is the atlantoaxial joint? synovial pivot The glenohumeral joint is more commonly called the ______ joint. shoulder The hip joint is more stable and ______ mobile than the glenohumeral joint because it supports the body weight. less The rotator cuff muscles include ______. latissimus dorsi and triceps brachii teres major and deltoid supraspinatus and infraspinatus subscapularis and teres minor supraspinatus and infraspinatus subscapularis and teres minor Which structure covers the anterior surface of the knee joint? The tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle The coxal joint is ______ stable than the glenohumeral joint. more The ligament on the lateral side of the knee is called the ______ ligament. fibular collateral lateral collateral True or false: The ACL is rather weak compared to the other knee ligaments. true The articular capsule of the knee joint encloses which regions of the knee joint? Medial, lateral, and posterior The ligament that supports the knee on the medial side is called the ______ ligament. medial collateral tibial collateral The ____ cruciate ligament runs from the posterior femur to the anterior side of the tibia. Anterior (ACL) The ACL can be injured when the leg is hyperextended _______ is a group of inflammatory or degenerative diseases of the joints that can occur in various forms. arthritis The ______ becomes taut when the knee is flexed and prevents hyperflexion of the knee joint. PCL Each form of arthritis presents the same symptoms, which are ______. swelling stiffness pain Muscles are considered organs because they are composed not only of muscle tissue, but also of ______, and nervous tissue epithelial, connective The shortening of muscle cells is called _______, a property that allows muscle cells to cause body movement. contraction What tissue types are present in each skeletal muscle? Epithelial Nervous Connective Muscle The external urethral sphincter is a circular muscle band that relaxes to allow urine to pass. This exemplifies what property of skeletal muscle tissue? Regulation of elimination Muscle fibers contain cylindrical structures called myofibrils, which are composed of ______. myofilaments How many skeletal muscles in the human body are named? Over 700 Muscle Epimysium Fascicle Perimysium Muscle cell Endomysium Muscle Epimysium Fascicle Perimysium Muscle cell Endomysium In a laboratory experiment, isolated muscle tissue can be stimulated to contract upon application of an electrical stimulus. What property of muscle tissue does this best describe? Excitability The three connective tissue layers surrounding the individual components of a muscle are Blank 1, Correct Unavailable, Blank 2 , Correct Unavailable, and endomysium. Blank 1: epimysium Blank 2: perimysium Skeletal muscles ______. Multiple select question. vary greatly in size and shape are found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach may be composed of thousands of fibers contain striations vary greatly in size and shape may be composed of thousands of fibers contain striations In a transverse section, each skeletal muscle is composed of ______, which are bundles of muscle fibers. fascicles Muscle Multiple bundles housing many muscle fibers Fascicle A bundle of muscle fibers Muscle fiber Elongated, multinucleated, cylindrical cell Myofibril Long, cylindrical contractile element within muscle cell Myofilament Short contractile proteins of two types: thick and thin ... Each muscle fiber is surrounded by a delicate layer of connective tissue called ______. endomysium Muscle fibers in a muscle on the anterior side of the arm may be as long as ______. 35cm In order from largest to smallest: Sarcolemma, Myofibril, Sarcomere, Myofilament. ... smallest to largest 1. myofilament 2. myofibrils 3. muscle fiber 4. muscle fascicle what connective tissue layers surrounds the following muscle units: muscle = fascicle = muscle cell = 1. epimysium 2. perimysium ysium An internal membrane complex that is similar to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of other cells is called the ______. sarcoplasmic reticulum Skeletal muscle fibers are ______. mucltinucleate description of the following muscle cell components: 1. Myofibrils 2. Thick filament 3. Thin filament 4. Actin 5. Tropomyosin 1. cylindrical bundles of myofilaments that are as long as the muscle fiber 2. composed of myosin 3. composed of actin, troponin, and tropomyosin 4. double stranded contractile protein 5. double stranded regulatory protein A tropomyosin molecule is a short, thin, twisted filament that covers small sections of the ______ strands. actin The deep invaginations of the sarcolemma that extend into the sarcoplasm of skeletal muscle fibers as a network of narrow membranous tubules are called ______. transverse tubules Each ______ shortens as the muscle fiber contracts. sarcomere During development, many groups of ________ fuse to form single skeletal muscle fibers. myoblasts According to the sliding filament theory, when a muscle contracts, thick and thin filaments ____past each other, and the ____ shortens. 1. slide 2. sarcomere structurally, troponin attaches to ______ to anchor itself in place. actin Each muscle fiber is controlled by a(n) ______ neuron. motor Myofibrils contain multiple ______; thus, there are numerous ______ in each myofibril. Z-discs, sarcomeres A motor unit is composed of a single ______ and all of the muscle fibers it controls. motor neuron The ___ filament theory explains how muscle fibers shorten during contraction. sliding Muscle tone is the resting ______ in a skeletal muscle. tension According to the sliding filament theory, the length of the ____ band remains constant, but the _____ zone disappears. A, H During a(n) ______ contraction, the length of the muscle does not change. isometric The motor neuron transmits the effect of a nerve impulse to the muscle fiber at a ______ neuromuscular junction In skeletal muscles, fast oxidative (intermediate) fibers are characterized as type ______, and they typically produce ATP through ______ cellular respiration. IIa, aerobic A single motor neuron typically controls ______ in a muscle. numerous muscles fibers Slow ___ fibers are also known as type I fibers. oxidative the resting muscle tone stabilizes the position of the ______. bones and joints A circular muscle is also called a ______, because contraction of the muscle closes off the opening. sphincter An increase in muscle fiber size is called hypertrophy The practice of applying mechanical principles to biology is known as ______. biomechanics In skeletal muscles, fast fibers are characterized as fast ___ or fast oxidative. glycolytic Fast glycolytic fibers are type ______ fibers. IIb There are four different patterns of fascicle arrangement: _______,_____ , pennate, and parallel Blank 1: circular Blank 2: convergent When a lever has a fulcrum in the middle, between the effort and the resistance, it is classified as a ______ lever. first-class An increase in muscle fiber number is called _____. hyperplasia The location and nature of the muscular connection to the skeleton influences the____ , range, and power of movement. speed The triceps brachii in the posterior arm is a(n) ______ that causes forearm extension. agonist What are the three classes of lever systems found in the body? first, second, and third Cardiac muscle cells are ______ like skeletal muscle fibers. striated Cardiac muscle cells form Y-shaped branches and join to adjacent muscle cells at junctions called ____ discs. intercalated The ___ discs that anchor the sarcomere on either end in skeletal muscle are absent from smooth muscle cells z Cardiac muscle cells are ______ and thicker than skeletal muscle cells, and they have only ______ nuclei. shorter, 1-2 Although smooth muscle cells have both thick and thin filaments, they are not precisely aligned, so no visible _____ are present. striations Which of the following are attachment sites for facial muscles? Superficial fascia of skin Skull bones Tendons of other muscles Ligament of cervical vertebrae Superficial fascia of skin Skull bones Which muscle pulls the corners of the mouth inferiorly? Depressor anguli oris Which describes the location of the corrugator supercilii muscle? Deep to the frontal belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle Which of the following describes the location of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle? Attached to the upper eyelid Which muscle contracts when you "pucker" your lips? The orbicularis oris muscle Facial muscles attach where? Into the superficial fascia of the skin Which muscle compresses the cheek against the teeth, as in chewing, when it contracts? The buccinator muscle Which muscle draws the eyebrows together and creates vertical wrinkle lines above the nose when it contracts? Corrugator supercilii muscle Which describes the location of the orbicularis oculi muscle? Around the orbit The location of the the orbicularis oris muscle is around the ______. opening of the mouth Which is an attachment site of the ocular rectus muscles? Common tendinous ring A muscle in the cheek that infants use when they suckle is the ____ muscle. buccinator Which term refers to the process of chewing? mastication True or false: The temporalis is considered a muscle of mastication. true Which muscle acts to close the eyelid in a winking motion when it contracts? The orbicularis oculi muscle Which muscles end in the suffix -glossus, meaning tongue? Extrinsic tongue muscles The ______ is commonly called the throat. pharynx The term mastication refers to the process of ______. chewing Which of the following are considered muscles of mastication? The temporalis muscle The lateral pterygoid muscle The masseter muscle The medial pterygoid muscle The buccinator muscle The temporalis muscle The lateral pterygoid muscle The masseter muscle The medial pterygoid muscle Which muscles protract, retract and elevate the tongue? Extrinsic tongue muscles Bilateral contraction of the sternocleidomastoid muscles functions to ______. flex the neck The inferior funnel shaped tube that lies behind the oral and nasal cavities is the ______. pharynx The hyoid bone is an attachment site of which pharyngeal muscle? Middle pharyngeal constrictor Which of the following muscles are responsible for the lateral flexion of the vertebral column? Intertransversarii muscles If the left sternocleidomastoid muscle contracts, it rotates the head to the ______ side of the body. right Which muscle(s) of the vertebral column attaches to the iliac crest and iliolumbar ligament? Quadratus lumborum During exhalation, muscles of respiration ______. decrease the space of the thoracic cavity The attachment sites of the sternocleidomastoid muscle include ______. the sternum the mastoid process the clavicle The muscles that assist the serratus posterior superior muscles in expanding the thoracic cavity, by elevating the ribs, during inhalation are the ______ intercostals. external When the diaphragm contracts ______. the volume of the thoracic cavity increases During inhalation, muscles of respiration ______. increase the space of the thoracic cavity The rectus abdominis muscles of the abdominal wall are enclosed within a fibrous sleeve called the rectus sheath The pelvic diaphragm extends from the ossa coxae to ______ the sacrum and coccyx The dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity is the ______. diaphragm The ______ is formed by three layers of muscles and associated fasciae. pelvic diaphragm The four pairs of muscles that collectively compress, support, and hold the abdominal organs in place also work together to ______ and rotate the vertebral column. flex The main function of the muscles of the pelvic diaphragm is to ______. support pelvic viscera True or false: All anterior muscles that move the pectoral girdle are deep to other thoracic muscles. true Identify the lateral attachments of the trapezius. Acromion process of scapula Clavicle Spine of scapula The prime mover of the extension of the arm is the ______. latissimus dorsi Anatomically, muscles that move the pectoral girdle are classified as ______. anterior or posterior thoracic Which muscle is inferior to the clavicle and stabilizes and depresses the clavicle? Subclavius Which of the following best describes the location of the pectoralis major? Anterior of body, covers superior portion of thorax To locate the teres major, where would you look? Posterior of body, inferior to rotator cuff muscles identify the medial attachments of the trapezius. Spinous processes of T2-T5 Ligamentum nuchae Spinous processes of C7-T12 Occipital bone Ligamentum nuchae Spinous processes of C7-T12 Occipital bone Which muscles extend the forearm? triceps brachii, anconeus Which of the following best describes the location of the latissimus dorsi? Posterior of body, inferior part of the back location of latissimus dorsi located posterior to and partially covered by spinotrapezius Which of the following best summarizes the movements of the glenohumeral joint that occur when the pectoralis major contracts? Flexion, adduction, medial rotation Which of the following correctly pairs fibers of the deltoid with their function? Middle fibers adduct and flex the arm. Posterior fibers flex and laterally rotate the arm. Anterior fibers flex and medially rotate the arm. Anterior fibers flex and medially rotate the arm. Which muscles flex the forearm? Biceps brachii Brachioradialis Brachialis Identify the movements of the glenohumeral joint that occur with contraction of the infraspinatus and teres minor. Adduction of the arm Lateral rotation of the arm muscles that laterally rotate the arm at the glenohumeral joint Deltoid Teres minor Infraspinatus Identify the movements of the glenohumeral joint that occur with contraction of the posterior fibers of the deltoid. Extend and laterally rotate the arm Contraction of the long head of the biceps brachii results in a single type of movement of the glenohumeral joint. What type of movement is this? Flexion of the arm Contraction of the subscapularis ______ the arm, and contraction of the supraspinatus ______ the arm. medially rotates, abducts Identify the muscles that medially rotate the arm at the glenohumeral joint. Subscapularis Latissimus dorsi Teres major Deltoid Pectoralis major The anterior and posterior compartments of the arm are surrounded by ______ and each houses skeletal muscles that perform ______ actions. deep fascia, similar Which best summarizes the MAIN movement of the glenohumeral joint that occur with contraction of the deltoid? Abduction of the arm Which muscles flex the forearm? Brachialis Brachioradialis Biceps brachii Triceps brachii Brachialis Brachioradialis Biceps brachii Identify the location of the triceps brachii. Posterior arm Identify the muscles that laterally rotate the arm at the glenohumeral joint. Teres minor Infraspinatus Deltoid In general, the anterior compartment of the arm contains muscles that ______ the forearm at the elbow joint, while the posterior compartment contains muscles that ______ the forearm. flex, extend Why is the forearm larger near the elbow than it is near the wrist? The bellies of the forearm muscles that move the wrist are located near the elbow; the tendons of these muscles extend toward the wrist. Identify the actions provided by contraction of the biceps brachii. Flexion of the forearm The tendons of forearm muscles are individually surrounded by ______ sheaths and collectively held close to the carpal bones by fibrous bands of fascia called ______. synovial, retinacula Identify the action provided by contraction of the triceps brachii. Extension of the forearm Put in simple terms, the intrinsic muscles of the hand are classified anatomically as the group at the base of the thumb (the _______ group), those found at the base of the little finger (the _______ group), and everything in between (the _______ group) thenar, hypothenar, midpalmar Extrinsic muscles of the wrist and hand ______. flex or extend the hand and fingers Which of the following correctly describes the tendons of the forearm muscles at the wrist joint? The flexor retinaculum covers the palmar or anterior surface of the carpal bones. Which group of intrinsic hand muscles forms a fleshy mass at the base of the thumb? Thenar When the sartorius contracts, the thigh is _______. rotated laterally flexed Compartments in the forearm contain muscles with similar ______. actions at the wrist joint When the adductor longus contracts, the thigh is _______. adducted flexed When the psoas major contracts, the thigh is _______. flexed The muscles of the thenar and hypothenar group form fleshy masses, each called a(n) _______, a term given to a circumscribed area raised above the general level of the surrounding surface. eminence When the adductor fibers of the adductor magnus contract, the thigh is _______. flexed and adducted Which is a long, thin muscle that crosses the anterior thigh and helps to flex the thigh? sartorius When the tensor fasciae latae contracts, the thigh is _______. rotated medially abducted rotated laterally flexed rotated medially abducted When the gluteus maximus contracts, the thigh is _______. extended rotated laterally When the adductor brevis contracts, the thigh is _______. flexed adducted When the adductor longus contracts, the thigh is _______. adducted flexed When the tensor fasciae latae contracts, the thigh is _______. abducted rotated medially In addition to extending the thigh, the biceps femoris rotates the thigh ______. laterally The common action of the muscles of the anterior compartment collectively called the quadriceps femoris is _______ at the knee joint. extension of the leg When the gluteus minimus contracts, the thigh is _______. rotated medially abducted Contraction of the muscles in the superficial layer of the posterior compartment of the leg results in ______. plantar flexion of the foot When any one or all of the posterior muscles of the hamstring group are contracted, the thigh is _______. extended The intrinsic foot muscles have attachments ______. within the foot only Which muscle acts to abduct the thigh? gluteus medius which muscle abducts the thigh gluteus medius Which is NOT a function of the sartorius on the knee joint? Extends leg True or false: The intrinsic muscles of the foot act primarily to evert and invert the foot. false The actions of the muscles in the lateral compartment of the leg include ______. plantar flexion and eversion of the foot Which of the following is NOT a function of the intrinsic muscles of the foot? Rotate the toes Abduct and adduct the toes Flex and extend the toes Support the arches Rotate the toes Which form of membrane movement is ideal for the diffusion of gases? simple diffusion Which major category of tissues is ideal for lining and covering structures? epithelial tissue Tunica Intimia (interna) consists of endothelial cells, connective tissue tunica media consists of elastic fibers and smooth muscle tunica externa consists of epithelial cells, connective tissue, elastic fibers which layer is the largest? tunica media why is the tunica media thicker in arteries than veins? they supply more pressure to blood what are the only blood vessels that contain valves? veins and venules what do valves do? prevent back flow of blood what is an artery blood vessels that transports blood AWAY from the heart and TOWARDS the capillaries are arteries oxygen rich or oxygen poor? oxygen rich what is a vein? vessels that drain blood from the capillaries and transport it TOWARDS the heart are veins oxygen rich or oxygen poor? oxygen poor what is a capillary? microscopic vessel that allows for the exchange of substances between blood and tissues what are capillaries composed of? layer of endothelium and a basement membrane what are elastic arteries composed of? more elastic fibers than smooth muscle what do elastic arteries do? conduct blood from the heart to distant muscular arteries why do elastic arteries stretch? to accommodate blood being ejected from the ventricle what do muscular arteries consists of? multiple layers of smooth muscle what do muscular arteries do? allow vessels to vasodilate and vasoconstrict to regulate distribution of blood what do arterioles do deliver blood to the capillaries where nutrient and gas exchange occur what do arterioles consists of attached to capillary beds, pre capillary sphincter pre capillary sphincter function used to control blood flow through the systemic capillary arterioles are always under what? and what is it regulated by? vasomotor tone, regulated by vasomotor center of the brainstem what do continuous capillaries consists of endothelial cells that encircle lumen, filtration cleft, systemic capillaries what is the function of continuous capillaries? move small nutrients and waste through simple diffusion diffusion and bulk flow endocytosis where are continuous capillaries found? muscles and skin what do fenestrated capillaries consists of? fenestration (windows), pores, filtration cleft what is the function of fenestrated capillaries? allow more capillary exchange and slightly larger molecules to be absorbed and filtered out of capillaries where are fenestrated capillaries found? small intestine and kidneys what do sinusoidal capillaries consists of? endothelial cells that dont encircle lumen, large filtration pores what is the function of sinusoidal capillaries? move large substances where are sinusoidal capillaries found? liver, red bone marrow, spleen, endocrine glands what are venules smallest veins in diameter that are attached to capillary bed what are large veins? size of garden hose ex: inferior vena cava veins rely on the following to create pressure to assist in returning blood to the heart vasoconstriction, valves, skeletal muscle pump, respiratory pump, cardiac suction what is vasodilation? increase in the diameter of the lumen of a blood vessel to allow for greater blood flow how is vasodilation accomplished? by relaxing/inhibiting smooth muscle of the tunica media what is vasoconstriction? decrease in diameter of the lumen of a blood vessel how is vasoconstriction accomplished? by contracting smooth muscle in the tunica media what is the hepatic portal system? group of veins that drain blood from various organs of the gastrointestinal tract is the hepatic portal system oxygen rich or oxygen poor? oxygen poor blood but nutrient rich once blood has been processed in the hepatic portal system where does it go? it leaves the liver and goes through the hepatic vein three factors that determine systemic vascular resistance are blood vessel diameter, blood vessel length, and blood viscosity a decrease in ____ increases resistance and requires an increase in pressure to maintain the original flow rate blood vessel diameter increase in ____ increases resistance and requires an increase in blood pressure to maintain the original flow rate blood vessel length an increase in ___ results in thicker blood that is harder to move and requires an increase in blood pressure to maintain the original flow rate blood viscosity what is most commonly used to control blood pressure and why blood vessel diameter because we can control it immediately the greater the resistance the ___ the blood flow less MAP = ([systolic pressure - diastolic pressure] / 3) + diastolic pressure blood flow = change in pressure (P aorta) / resistance (Pr atrium) what is cardiac output? amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle per minute so it will influence blood pressure in vessels capillary net filtration pressure equation (NFP = (BHP +IFOP) - (BCOP + IFHP)) two factors that promote filtration BHP and IFOP two factors that oppose filtration BCOP and IFHP net negative number = reabsorption what is reabsorption? fluid moving back into the blood from the interstitial fluid net positive number = filtration what is filtration fluid moving from the blood into the interstitial fluid if the amount of fluid that is reabsorbed on the venous end does not equal the amount of fluid filtered on the arterial end, what can happen an accumulation of fluid can happen in the interstitial space = edema veins function as a blood reservoir that can increase venous return to the heart when systemic venoconstriction increases venous return what is bulk flow the movement of a fluid driven by pressure what is the net filtration pressure equation NFP = (HPblood - HPtissue) - (COPblood - COP tissue) What is angiogenesis? growth of new blood vessels acute control of blood is mediated through the autonomic division of the central nervous system (sympathetic tone) what is the chemoreflex? negative feedback response to pH and concentrations of oxygen and carbon dioxide what is the baroreflex an automatic, negative feedback response to changes in blood pressure what do baroreceptors do detect changes in the stretch of the blood vessels and triggers baroreflex whenever blood pressure ___, the cardiovascular center of the brainstem increases ___ nerve innervation towards the SA node to increase heart rate leading to a return in homeostasis decreases, sympathetic what does the cardiovascular center do? receive signals from the higher brain centers, proprioceptors in the joints and baroceptors in the aorta and carotid arteries sympathetic innervation by the cardiac accelerator nerve ___ heart rate and contractility, leading to a net __ of cardiac output increase; increase parasympathetic innervation by the vagus nerve ___ the heart rate and cardiac output decreases The highest pressure exerted on the arterial walls during the heart cycle is referred to as systolic blood pressure The ___ is measured when the heart is relaxing and represents the lowest pressure exerted in the walls of the arteries during the heart cycle diastolic blood pressure Select all that occur during bulk flow across a typical capillary Filtration, reabsorption, movement of fluids and solutes into the capillary, movement of fluids and solutes out of the capillary autonomic blood pressure regulation events 1. Blood pressure increases 2. Blood vessel wall stretches 3. Baroreceptors in vessels increase firing rates 4. Sensory input sent to cardiovascular center 5. Cardioaccelerator center decrease nerve signals along sympathetic pathways 6. Heart rate and stroke volume decrease 7. Blood pressure returns to resting levels venous return is achieved in four mechanisms 1. pressure gradient 2. gravity 3. skeletal muscle pump 4. thoracic pump the smaller the radius of a vessel, the ___ resistance greater as the radius of a vessel ___, the resistance ___ increases, decreases as the resistance ____, the blood flow ___ decreases, increases the larger the radius of a vessel, the ___ the resistance less blood flow to an organ will decrease with vasoconstriction blood flow to an organ will increases with vasodilation what are the functions of the lymphatic system? fluid balance, formation of lymph, immunity, transport lipids fluid balance takes fluid filtered from the blood into the interstitial space and returns it to the bloodstream through lymphatic vessels formation of lymph lymph resembles interstitial fluid since it is essentially the same fluid only in the lymph vessel transport lipids in the form of lacteals where are lacteals found lining of the small intestine when lipids absorb lacteals, where will the pass they pass through the lymphatic vessels until the reach the veins immunity lymphocytes will target and destroy pathogens due to housing and transport of WBCs in lymphatic tissues which of the following is a function of lymph? transport of lipids from the digestive system lymphatic system consists of vessels that carries lymph from the interstitial fluid of tissue to ___ the subclavian veins what is the major component of blood plasma? water fluid inside the cell is known as cytoplasm fluid found outside the cell is extracellular fluid what is whole blood blood drawn directly form the body that consist of whole elements, proteins, and plasma what is interstitial fluid? any extracellular fluid that is not in the blood vessels filtered blood plasma leaves the blood stream and enters the interstitial fluid fluid taken up by the lymphatic capillary bed becomes lymphatic fluid lymphatic fluid is drained through the vessels, then trunks, then ducts after fluid is drained out the ducts, it will drain into the subclavian veins and then return the fluid back to the blood vessel where it originated lymphatic capillaries and blood capillaries both consists of endothelial tissue and transport fluids found throughout the body but not in epithelial tissue lymphatic capillaries are ____ at one end closed walls of endothelial in lymphatic capillaries ___ overlap cells of the lymphatic capillary require ____ to surround tissue to prevent collapse of a vessel tethering lymphatic capillaries have large filtration clefts that allow for large substances to be absorbed lymphatic capillaries abosrb via bulk flow through clefts, facilitated diffusion, and transcytosis what happens during facilitated diffusion? interstitial fluid will diffuse through small valves in the junctions of the endothelium forces fluid to move into the capillary but not out what happens during transcytosis? wastes are too large to pass through blood capillary endothelium can move through lacteals lymph flows from the interstitial fluid to lymphatic capillaries lymph flows from the lymphatic capillaries to afferent lymphatic vessels lymph flows from afferent lymphatic vessels to lymph nodes lymph flows from lymph nodes to efferent lymphatic vessels lymph flows from efferent lymphatic vessels to lymphatic trunks lymph flows from lymphatic trunks to lymphatic ducts lymph flows from the lymphatic ducts to subclavian veins The formation of lymph increases as a result of Increasing hydrostatic pressure in tissue fluid Lymph from the head and neck drains into the left and right ___ trunks jugular The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from all of the following body regions except the lower limbs Lymphatic capillaries are found in all of the following tissues or areas except the epithelial tissues what do lymphoid tissues include lymphoid nodules, organs, nodes, and thymus gland Which are the major tissue types would be ideal for storing cells such as lymphocytes? connective tissues what are lymphatic nodules masses of lymphatic tissue that are not surrounded by a capsule what are the tonsils masses of lymphatic tissue that are not surrounded by a capsule what do the tonsils do aid in trapping inhaled or ingested foreign substances where does the right lymphatic duct drain to the right side of the body above the diaphragm where does the thoracic duct drain to the left side of the body above the diaphragm and both lower extremities What is the cisterna chyli? name of structure where two lymphatic trunks from the lower extremities join together What does MALT stand for? mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue what is MALT lymphatic tissues that line organs to open the exterior like respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive tracts what is GALT gastrointestinal associated lymphoid tissue where is GALT found in the mucosa of most GI structures where are Peyer patches found the small intestine what are lymphatic organs non-moving structures that work to house lymphatic tissue what do the lymphatic organs consists of red bone marrow, lymph nodes, tonsils, thymus, spleen what are lymph nodes lymphatic tissue surrounded by a capsule what is the function of lymph nodes remove unwanted waste the cortex consists of lymphatic nodules that germinate B cells and macrophages the medulla consists of medullary cords that will store B cells, T cells, and macrophages what are macrophages responsible for removing foreign debris and ensuring that no pathogens can progress through the body where are the tonsils found the pharynx and oral cavity what are the three types of tonsils pharyngeal, palatine, lingual where are pharyngeal tonsils located found in the nasopharynx where are the palatine tonsils found on either side of the posterior oral cavity where are the lingual tonsils found found on the posterior third of the tongue Encapsulated ___ can be found along the various lymphatic pathways and will aid in filtering lymph lymph nodes Lymphocytes embedded within connective tissue membranes are known as ____ that lack a capsule and will be found in the GI, urinary, and reproductive tracts lymph nodules where is the thymus found within the superior mediastinum above the heart, between the lungs, deep to the sternum what is the function of the thymus the production and maturation of T cells as a person ages, the thymus will ____ shrink in size when the thymus shrinks in size it will be replaced with adipose tissue the thymic cortex contains ____ T cells immature the thymic medulla contains ___ T cells mature the maturation of T cells is triggered by the thymic hormones like thymulin, thymosin, and thymopoietin the spleen is the largest lymphatic organ where is the spleen found upper left quadrant posterolateral to the stomach, lateral to the left kidney, and inferior to the diaphragm the splenic artery functions to deliver blood to the spleen the splenic vein functions to drain blood from the spleen the spleen is surrounded by a tissue capsule that protects the red and white pulp what does red pulp consist of? red blood cells stored in the splenic cords to act as a blood reservior what do white pulp consist of? t cells, b cells, and macrophages that act as the immune cells what does the spleen lack? cortex and medulla What is the function of the lymphatic nodules? defend against infection in the area The thymus continues to grow until a person reaches ___ when it has a maximum weight of 30 50 grams puberty Accumulations of lymphocytes embedded in connective tissue networks are called ____ and can be present in static locations or acutely accumulate in areas of infection lymphatic tissues What are the 3 different layers of blood vessels? tunica intima, tunica media, tunica externa What are the three different types of arteries? elastic arteries, muscular arteries, arterioles What kind of blood do arteries carry? oxygenated blood Where do arteries carry blood? away from the heart What are the three different types of capillaries? continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoidal What cells are continuous capillaries made up of and where are they found in the body? endothelial cells, found in system capillaries Where are fenestrated capillaries found in the body? found in the kidney Where are the sinusoidal capillaries found in the body? found in the liver What are the 3 different types of veins? venules, medium-sized veins, large veins What kind of blood do veins carry? deoxygenated blood Where do the veins carry blood? towards the heart Mean Arterial Pressure Equation diastolic pressure-systolic pressure/3 + diastolic pressure What are the three factors that can determine systemic vascular resistance? blood vessel diameter, blood vessel length, blood viscosity What is the capillary net filtration pressure equation? NFP= (BHP+IFOP)-(BCOP+IFHP) What are the two factors that promote filtration? BHP and IFOP What are the two factors that oppose filtration? BCOP and IFHP What does a net positive filtration number mean? filtration is occurring What does a negative net filtration number mean? reabsorption is occurring What do veins act as? blood reservoirs What are the primary organs of the lymphatic system? bone marrow and thymus How does lymph travel through the body? capillaries - vessels - trunks - ducts Where does the thoracic trunk drain to? All of the lower extremities and the left side of the upper body Valves ensure______ One-way flow of blood through the heart Right AV valve has____ three cusps (TRIcuspid valve) Left AV valve has____ two cusps (BIcuspid) Left AV valve also called biscupid valve or mitral valve Right AV valve also called Tricuspid valve Cardiac Output (CO) The amount of blood ejected by each ventricle in 1 minute Exercise makes the heart____ work harder which increases cardiac output At the beginning of exercise______in the muscles & joints send signals to the cardiac centers proprioceptors Sympathetic output from the cardiac centers then _____ cardiac output increases As exercise progresses, muscular activity ______ venous return increases The preload increases on the right ventricle and then the left ventricle as more blood flows through the _______ Pulmonary circuit and reaches the left heart Sustained exercise causes hypertrophy Blood vessels further from the heart lowest BP Blood vessels closest to heart highest BP Tunica Interna (Tunica) Innermost; consists of a layer of simple squamous epithelium called endothelium. Bound to a supendothelial layer of areolar connective tissue Tunica Media Middle; consists primarily of smooth muscle with a framework of elastic connective tissue and contains collagen. Thickest layer Tunica Externa (Adventitia) Outermost; consists of areolar connective tissue with elastice and collagen fibers Capillaries only consist of______and______ Basement membrane; endothelium layer Veins and venules are the only blood vessels that contain Valves to prevent back flow Tunica media will be thicker in arteries than veins because They will need to supply more pressure to the blood Smallest artery is an Arteriole Smallest vein is a Venule Elastic arteries Tunica media composed of smooth muscle and elastic connective tissue Largest of arteries Found closest to the heart Elastic needed to withstand blood being ejected from heart Muscular Arteries Tunica media composed of smooth muscle Second largest artery Found far from heart Smooth muscle needed for vasoconstriction and vasodilation Continuous Capillaries Completely encricle a lumen, surrounded by a complete basement membrane Found in skin and muscle Function of continuous capillaries Move small nutrients and waves through simple diffusion such as gases Fenestrated capillaries Contain fenestrations (Windows) Found in small intestines and kidneys Function of fenestrated capillaries These allow more capillary exchange and slightly larger molecules to be absorbed into and filtered out of capillaries Sinusoidal Capillaries Endothelial cells that do not completely encircle a lumen with the basement membrane being incomplete or absent Found in Liver, spleen, red bone marrow and some endocrine glands Function of Sinusoidal capillaries These move large substances such as the formed elements and plasma proteins Hepatic portal sytem Receives blood from the abdominal digestive tract., pancreas, gallbladder, and sleen. The hepatic system gives which organ the first claim to nutrients? The liver so it has time to cleanse the blood of bacteria and toxins picked up by the intestines Remember: Portal system has ____ capillary beds 2 Hepatic Portal Vein Collects from the other veins,drains into liver Splenic vein Drains spleen Inferior mesenteric vein Receives from colon and rectum and empties into splenic vein Superio