NR 602 WEEK 5 FINAL EXAM LATEST
2026 / NR 602 FINAL EXAM 100 FINAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS(GUARANTEED PASS 100%)//
ALL YOU NEED TO PASS NUR 602 FINAL
EXAM WITH MOST TEST QUESTIONS
1–20: Women’s Health – STIs & Reproductive Health
1. A 22-year-old woman presents with thin, gray, fishy-smelling discharge. Wet
prep shows clue cells. What is the first-line treatment?
a) Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID × 7 days
b) Clindamycin 2% cream intravaginally × 7 days
c) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM
d) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 7 days
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ a) Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID × 7 days
Rationale: Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is treated with metronidazole (oral or vaginal) or
clindamycin. Oral metronidazole is often first-line.
2. A 25-year-old with dysuria, urinary frequency, and no vaginal discharge is
diagnosed with uncomplicated cystitis. The preferred first-line antibiotic is:
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Nitrofurantoin
,c) Azithromycin
d) Ceftriaxone
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ b) Nitrofurantoin
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is first-line for uncomplicated cystitis due to low
resistance rates.
3. Which of the following contraceptive methods is considered Tier 1 (most
effective) with perfect use?
a) Combined oral contraceptive pill
b) Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
c) Male condom
d) Diaphragm
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ b) Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
Rationale: IUDs and implants are Tier 1 (>99% effective). Pills, condoms, and
diaphragms have higher typical-use failure rates.
4. A 32-year-old woman desires long-term contraception and has a history of deep
vein thrombosis. Which method is contraindicated?
a) Copper IUD
b) Levonorgestrel IUD
c) Etonogestrel implant
d) Combined oral contraceptive pill
,✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ d) Combined oral contraceptive pill
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives (estrogen-containing) are
contraindicated in women with a history of DVT due to increased thrombotic risk.
5. A patient presents with a painless ulcer on the vulva. Darkfield microscopy
reveals Treponema pallidum. What is the correct diagnosis and treatment?
a) Chancroid; azithromycin
b) Primary syphilis; benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM × 1
c) Herpes simplex; valacyclovir
d) Lymphogranuloma venereum; doxycycline
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ b) Primary syphilis; benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM × 1
Rationale: Primary syphilis presents with a painless chancre. Penicillin G is the
treatment of choice.
6. A 19-year-old is diagnosed with chlamydia. She is allergic to doxycycline. The
next best option is:
a) Azithromycin 1 g PO × 1
b) Ofloxacin 300 mg PO BID × 7 days
c) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM × 1
d) Levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily × 7 days
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ a) Azithromycin 1 g PO × 1
Rationale: Azithromycin is an alternative for chlamydia when tetracyclines are
contraindicated. Single dose improves adherence.
, 7. A 24-year-old woman is diagnosed with gonorrhea. What is the recommended
treatment?
a) Cefixime 800 mg PO × 1
b) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM × 1
c) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 7 days
d) Azithromycin 2 g PO × 1
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ b) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM × 1
Rationale: CDC guidelines recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg IM (or 1 g if weight
>150 kg) for uncomplicated gonorrhea.
8. Which of the following is true regarding HPV vaccination?
a) It is recommended for males only
b) It is recommended for all individuals up to age 26
c) It treats existing HPV infections
d) It is not recommended after age 18
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ b) It is recommended for all individuals up to age 26
Rationale: HPV vaccine is recommended for males and females through age 26. It
is preventive, not therapeutic.
9. A 30-year-old with abnormal uterine bleeding has an endometrial stripe of 14
mm on ultrasound. What is the next step?
a) Reassure and repeat ultrasound in 6 months
b) Endometrial biopsy
c) Start oral contraceptive pills
d) Perform hysterosalpingogram
2026 / NR 602 FINAL EXAM 100 FINAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS(GUARANTEED PASS 100%)//
ALL YOU NEED TO PASS NUR 602 FINAL
EXAM WITH MOST TEST QUESTIONS
1–20: Women’s Health – STIs & Reproductive Health
1. A 22-year-old woman presents with thin, gray, fishy-smelling discharge. Wet
prep shows clue cells. What is the first-line treatment?
a) Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID × 7 days
b) Clindamycin 2% cream intravaginally × 7 days
c) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM
d) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 7 days
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ a) Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID × 7 days
Rationale: Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is treated with metronidazole (oral or vaginal) or
clindamycin. Oral metronidazole is often first-line.
2. A 25-year-old with dysuria, urinary frequency, and no vaginal discharge is
diagnosed with uncomplicated cystitis. The preferred first-line antibiotic is:
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Nitrofurantoin
,c) Azithromycin
d) Ceftriaxone
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ b) Nitrofurantoin
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is first-line for uncomplicated cystitis due to low
resistance rates.
3. Which of the following contraceptive methods is considered Tier 1 (most
effective) with perfect use?
a) Combined oral contraceptive pill
b) Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
c) Male condom
d) Diaphragm
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ b) Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
Rationale: IUDs and implants are Tier 1 (>99% effective). Pills, condoms, and
diaphragms have higher typical-use failure rates.
4. A 32-year-old woman desires long-term contraception and has a history of deep
vein thrombosis. Which method is contraindicated?
a) Copper IUD
b) Levonorgestrel IUD
c) Etonogestrel implant
d) Combined oral contraceptive pill
,✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ d) Combined oral contraceptive pill
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives (estrogen-containing) are
contraindicated in women with a history of DVT due to increased thrombotic risk.
5. A patient presents with a painless ulcer on the vulva. Darkfield microscopy
reveals Treponema pallidum. What is the correct diagnosis and treatment?
a) Chancroid; azithromycin
b) Primary syphilis; benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM × 1
c) Herpes simplex; valacyclovir
d) Lymphogranuloma venereum; doxycycline
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ b) Primary syphilis; benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM × 1
Rationale: Primary syphilis presents with a painless chancre. Penicillin G is the
treatment of choice.
6. A 19-year-old is diagnosed with chlamydia. She is allergic to doxycycline. The
next best option is:
a) Azithromycin 1 g PO × 1
b) Ofloxacin 300 mg PO BID × 7 days
c) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM × 1
d) Levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily × 7 days
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ a) Azithromycin 1 g PO × 1
Rationale: Azithromycin is an alternative for chlamydia when tetracyclines are
contraindicated. Single dose improves adherence.
, 7. A 24-year-old woman is diagnosed with gonorrhea. What is the recommended
treatment?
a) Cefixime 800 mg PO × 1
b) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM × 1
c) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 7 days
d) Azithromycin 2 g PO × 1
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ b) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM × 1
Rationale: CDC guidelines recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg IM (or 1 g if weight
>150 kg) for uncomplicated gonorrhea.
8. Which of the following is true regarding HPV vaccination?
a) It is recommended for males only
b) It is recommended for all individuals up to age 26
c) It treats existing HPV infections
d) It is not recommended after age 18
✔✔✔ANSW✔✔ b) It is recommended for all individuals up to age 26
Rationale: HPV vaccine is recommended for males and females through age 26. It
is preventive, not therapeutic.
9. A 30-year-old with abnormal uterine bleeding has an endometrial stripe of 14
mm on ultrasound. What is the next step?
a) Reassure and repeat ultrasound in 6 months
b) Endometrial biopsy
c) Start oral contraceptive pills
d) Perform hysterosalpingogram
