HESI PN Comprehensive Exam 1 Questions with 100% Verified Answers
A client with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns of the face and chest is receiving
wound care using the open method. The plan of care includes the Nsg Dx, "Risk for infection
R/T impaired tissue integrity." Based on the expected outcome, "Client remains free of
infections," which nursing interventions should the PN implement?
A. Wear gown, cap, mask, and gloves during direct client care.
B. Restrict visitors in order to prevent wound contamination.
C. Use sterile water for debridement in the hydrotherapy tank.
D. Apply sterile dressings after debridement of burn wounds. - Answer-A. Wear gown, cap,
mask, and gloves during direct client care.
No dressing is used for burn wound care using the open method. The burn area is exposed
and an aseptic environment is needed to prevent contamination and infection. Protective
isolation precautions should be implemented during direct client care and wound care,
which should include wearing gown, cap, mask, and gloves.
What action should the PN implement to facilitate speech for a client who has a fenestrated
tracheostomy tube?
A. Show the client how to use a tracheostomy plug.
B. Determine the client's ability to swallow.
C. Remove the inner cannula.
D. Give oxygen at 6 L/minute via tracheostomy collar. - Answer-B. Determine the client's
ability to swallow.
A fenestrated tracheostomy has an opening or hole on the posterior aspect of the outer
cannula that allows airflow over the vocal cords and speech in a client who is spontaneously
breathing. It does not have a cuff, so the client's risk for aspiration should be determined.
,A male client scheduled for a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection for cancer of the
larynx asks the PN if he will ever be able to speak. Which response is bets for the PN to
provide?
A. Breathing occurs through a permanent neck opening which prevents normal speech.
B. Permanent removal of the voice box requires rehabilitation for esophageal speech.
C. Due to removal of the vocal cords, communication requires the use of sign language.
D. Once the breathing hole in the neck heals, the ability to speak requires a device. - Answer-
B. Permanent removal of the voice box requires rehabilitation for esophageal speech.
A total laryngectomy includes removal of the larynx and pre-epiglottis region resulting in a
permanent tracheostomy and loss of normal speech abilities. Rehab is required to learn to
speak using a prosthesis, esophageal speech, or an electrolarynx.
A client is wearing a continuous 24-hour Holter monitor for elevation of heart rhythm
disturbances. What info should the PN reinforce with this client?
A. Remove the electrodes to shower or bathe
B. Keep a diary of activities as long as the monitor is worn.
C. Exercise as much as possible while the monitor is in place.
D. Call the assigned number if an episode of irregular heartbeats occurs. - Answer-B. Keep a
diary of activities as long as the monitor is worn.
Nursing care for a client with a Holter monitor includes preparation of the skin, placement of
the electrodes and leads, and activities of daily living, so the client should be informed of the
importance of keeping an accurate record of activities and symptoms
The PN is caring for a client who is receiving a therapeutic dose of warfarin (Coumadin). The
client asks the PN to explain the effect of eating green leafy vegetables. What info should the
PN provide?
A. The high content of vitamin K in green leafy vegetables decreases Coumadin's action.
,B. Green vegetables are high in fiber and cellulose that decrease the absorption of
Coumadin.
C. These foods have a natural anticoagulant effect that potentiates the effect of Coumadin.
D. Dietary intake of green leafy vegetables alters the bowel bacteria's production of vitamin
K. - Answer-A. The high content of vitamin K in green leafy vegetables decreases Coumadin's
action.
Coumadin works as an anticoagulant by blocking hepatic utilization of vitamin K in the
production of prothrombin, which is a component of the blood clotting cascade. Green leafy
vegetables are high in vitamin K, which counteracts the anticoagulant effect of Coumadin.
The PN is reviewing the effects of NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) with a
client who has acute gastritis. What info is correct about the action of NSAIDs?
A. Causes histamine receptor stimulation that increases the release of hydrochloric acid.
B. Inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins that normally protect the stomach lining.
C. Activates an inflammatory response which increases the drug's absorption.
C.
D. Stimulates parietal cells to release pepsin leading to digestion of ingested foods. - Answer-
B. Inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins that normally protect the stomach lining
NSAIDs inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins which protect the stomach lining.
After undergoing exploratory laparotomy and bowel resection, a client with an NG tube to
suction complains of nausea and stomach distention. The PN irrigates the tube, but the
irrigating fluid does not return. What action should the PN implement?
A. Notify the healthcare provider.
B. Auscultate for bowel sounds.
C. Reposition the tube and check for placement.
, D. Remove the tube and replace it with a new one. - Answer-C. Reposition the tube and
check for placement.
Patency and position of a NGT are checked frequently to evaluate for dislodgement or NGT
obstruction with mucous, sediment, or blood clots. The placement should be verified and
repositioned in the stomach to obtain a return of the normal saline used to irrigate the NGT.
A client with advanced cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID. The client
complains that the medicine is causing diarrhea. Which therapeutic response of the
medication should the PN provide the client?
A. Promotes fluid loss.
B. Prevents constipation.
C. Excretes ammonia to improve cerebral function.
D. Reduces the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding. - Answer-C. Excretes ammonia to improve
cerebral function.
To treat portal-systemic encephalopathy, lactulose causes the movement of serum
ammonia, which accumulates due to hepatic dysfunction in cirrhosis, into the gut and
results in diarrhea due to the osmotic movement of water.
The PN is reinforcing the discharge instructions for a female client with cystitis. Which
statement indicates to the PN that the client understands measures to prevent urinary tract
infections (UTI)?
A. "I will limit my fluid intake to 1000 ml/day to prevent symptoms of frequency and
urgency."
B. "Every 2 to 3 hours during waking hours, I will drink a glass of water and empty my
bladder."
C. "I will use an antiseptic vaginal deodorant spray to reduce perineal bacterial growth."
D. After each bowel movement, I will wash my perineal area with soap and water. - Answer-
B. "Every 2 to 3 hours during waking hours, I will drink a glass of water and empty my
bladder."
A client with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns of the face and chest is receiving
wound care using the open method. The plan of care includes the Nsg Dx, "Risk for infection
R/T impaired tissue integrity." Based on the expected outcome, "Client remains free of
infections," which nursing interventions should the PN implement?
A. Wear gown, cap, mask, and gloves during direct client care.
B. Restrict visitors in order to prevent wound contamination.
C. Use sterile water for debridement in the hydrotherapy tank.
D. Apply sterile dressings after debridement of burn wounds. - Answer-A. Wear gown, cap,
mask, and gloves during direct client care.
No dressing is used for burn wound care using the open method. The burn area is exposed
and an aseptic environment is needed to prevent contamination and infection. Protective
isolation precautions should be implemented during direct client care and wound care,
which should include wearing gown, cap, mask, and gloves.
What action should the PN implement to facilitate speech for a client who has a fenestrated
tracheostomy tube?
A. Show the client how to use a tracheostomy plug.
B. Determine the client's ability to swallow.
C. Remove the inner cannula.
D. Give oxygen at 6 L/minute via tracheostomy collar. - Answer-B. Determine the client's
ability to swallow.
A fenestrated tracheostomy has an opening or hole on the posterior aspect of the outer
cannula that allows airflow over the vocal cords and speech in a client who is spontaneously
breathing. It does not have a cuff, so the client's risk for aspiration should be determined.
,A male client scheduled for a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection for cancer of the
larynx asks the PN if he will ever be able to speak. Which response is bets for the PN to
provide?
A. Breathing occurs through a permanent neck opening which prevents normal speech.
B. Permanent removal of the voice box requires rehabilitation for esophageal speech.
C. Due to removal of the vocal cords, communication requires the use of sign language.
D. Once the breathing hole in the neck heals, the ability to speak requires a device. - Answer-
B. Permanent removal of the voice box requires rehabilitation for esophageal speech.
A total laryngectomy includes removal of the larynx and pre-epiglottis region resulting in a
permanent tracheostomy and loss of normal speech abilities. Rehab is required to learn to
speak using a prosthesis, esophageal speech, or an electrolarynx.
A client is wearing a continuous 24-hour Holter monitor for elevation of heart rhythm
disturbances. What info should the PN reinforce with this client?
A. Remove the electrodes to shower or bathe
B. Keep a diary of activities as long as the monitor is worn.
C. Exercise as much as possible while the monitor is in place.
D. Call the assigned number if an episode of irregular heartbeats occurs. - Answer-B. Keep a
diary of activities as long as the monitor is worn.
Nursing care for a client with a Holter monitor includes preparation of the skin, placement of
the electrodes and leads, and activities of daily living, so the client should be informed of the
importance of keeping an accurate record of activities and symptoms
The PN is caring for a client who is receiving a therapeutic dose of warfarin (Coumadin). The
client asks the PN to explain the effect of eating green leafy vegetables. What info should the
PN provide?
A. The high content of vitamin K in green leafy vegetables decreases Coumadin's action.
,B. Green vegetables are high in fiber and cellulose that decrease the absorption of
Coumadin.
C. These foods have a natural anticoagulant effect that potentiates the effect of Coumadin.
D. Dietary intake of green leafy vegetables alters the bowel bacteria's production of vitamin
K. - Answer-A. The high content of vitamin K in green leafy vegetables decreases Coumadin's
action.
Coumadin works as an anticoagulant by blocking hepatic utilization of vitamin K in the
production of prothrombin, which is a component of the blood clotting cascade. Green leafy
vegetables are high in vitamin K, which counteracts the anticoagulant effect of Coumadin.
The PN is reviewing the effects of NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) with a
client who has acute gastritis. What info is correct about the action of NSAIDs?
A. Causes histamine receptor stimulation that increases the release of hydrochloric acid.
B. Inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins that normally protect the stomach lining.
C. Activates an inflammatory response which increases the drug's absorption.
C.
D. Stimulates parietal cells to release pepsin leading to digestion of ingested foods. - Answer-
B. Inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins that normally protect the stomach lining
NSAIDs inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins which protect the stomach lining.
After undergoing exploratory laparotomy and bowel resection, a client with an NG tube to
suction complains of nausea and stomach distention. The PN irrigates the tube, but the
irrigating fluid does not return. What action should the PN implement?
A. Notify the healthcare provider.
B. Auscultate for bowel sounds.
C. Reposition the tube and check for placement.
, D. Remove the tube and replace it with a new one. - Answer-C. Reposition the tube and
check for placement.
Patency and position of a NGT are checked frequently to evaluate for dislodgement or NGT
obstruction with mucous, sediment, or blood clots. The placement should be verified and
repositioned in the stomach to obtain a return of the normal saline used to irrigate the NGT.
A client with advanced cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID. The client
complains that the medicine is causing diarrhea. Which therapeutic response of the
medication should the PN provide the client?
A. Promotes fluid loss.
B. Prevents constipation.
C. Excretes ammonia to improve cerebral function.
D. Reduces the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding. - Answer-C. Excretes ammonia to improve
cerebral function.
To treat portal-systemic encephalopathy, lactulose causes the movement of serum
ammonia, which accumulates due to hepatic dysfunction in cirrhosis, into the gut and
results in diarrhea due to the osmotic movement of water.
The PN is reinforcing the discharge instructions for a female client with cystitis. Which
statement indicates to the PN that the client understands measures to prevent urinary tract
infections (UTI)?
A. "I will limit my fluid intake to 1000 ml/day to prevent symptoms of frequency and
urgency."
B. "Every 2 to 3 hours during waking hours, I will drink a glass of water and empty my
bladder."
C. "I will use an antiseptic vaginal deodorant spray to reduce perineal bacterial growth."
D. After each bowel movement, I will wash my perineal area with soap and water. - Answer-
B. "Every 2 to 3 hours during waking hours, I will drink a glass of water and empty my
bladder."
