Certified Texas Contract Developer (CTCD) (2026)
Questions and Answers
1. Which Texas statute governs statewide procurement authority?
A. Texas Government Code Chapter 2254
B. Texas Government Code Chapter 2155
C. Texas Administrative Code Title 10
D. Texas Business & Commerce Code
Rationale: Chapter 2155 establishes SPD authority over procurement.
2. Before an agency can issue solicitations, what must be completed?
A. Vendor registration
B. CTCD certification
C. Contract amendment
D. SPD audit
Rationale: Certification ensures compliance knowledge before delegation.
3. Which solicitation method is used for professional services?
A. Invitation for Bid (IFB)
B. Request for Proposal (RFP)
C. Request for Qualifications (RFQ)
D. Sole source procurement
Rationale: RFQ is mandated for professional services under Texas law.
4. Best practice for mitigating vendor performance risk?
A. Rely on vendor reputation
B. Include performance metrics
C. Use verbal agreements
D. Avoid penalties
Rationale: Metrics and remedies ensure accountability.
5. Which clause protects the state from unforeseen vendor failure?
A. Termination for convenience
B. Arbitration clause
C. Force majeure
D. Indemnification
Rationale: Allows the state to end contracts without cause.
6. Conflict of interest disclosures are required by:
A. Texas Ethics Commission
B. SPD internal policy
C. Vendor self-certification
D. Comptroller’s Office
Rationale: Ethics Commission enforces conflict rules.
,7. Which procurement method requires HUB (Historically Underutilized Business)
participation plans?
A. Purchases under $5,000
B. Competitive sealed proposals
C. Sole source contracts
D. Emergency purchases
Rationale: HUB plans are mandatory for large competitive solicitations.
Contract Administration
8. What is the primary purpose of a contract amendment?
A. To terminate the contract
B. To modify terms
C. To reassign vendors
D. To bypass procurement rules
Rationale: Amendments adjust scope, cost, or duration.
9. Which document tracks vendor compliance during contract execution?
A. Procurement plan
B. Contract management log
C. SPD delegation letter
D. Vendor registration form
Rationale: Logs ensure performance monitoring.
10. An agency discovers a vendor failed to meet delivery deadlines. What is the first
step?
A. Terminate the contract immediately
B. Issue a cure notice
C. File a lawsuit
D. Suspend payments
Rationale: Cure notice gives vendor chance to correct performance.
11. Which solicitation method is best for commodities with clear specifications?
A. RFP
B. IFB
C. RFQ
D. Sole source
Rationale: Invitation for Bid is used when requirements are straightforward and price is
the main factor.
12. Evaluation criteria in an RFP must be:
A. Hidden from vendors
B. Published in advance
C. Decided after proposals
D. Optional
, Rationale: Transparency requires criteria to be disclosed in the solicitation.
13. Which evaluation method balances technical merit and cost?
A. Lowest bid only
B. Best value
C. Sole source
D. HUB preference
Rationale: Best value considers both quality and price.
14. What is required before awarding a contract to a vendor?
A. Vendor must be registered in CMBL
B. Vendor must have HUB certification
C. Vendor must submit a protest
D. Vendor must waive liability
Rationale: Centralized Master Bidders List ensures vendor eligibility.
15. Vendor protests must be filed within:
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Rationale: Texas law requires protests within 10 business days of notice.
16. Which clause protects the state from vendor bankruptcy?
A. Indemnification
B. Termination for cause
C. Arbitration
D. Cure notice
Rationale: Termination for cause allows ending contracts due to vendor failure.
17. Force majeure clauses cover:
A. Vendor negligence
B. Unforeseen natural disasters
C. Contract mismanagement
D. SPD audits
Rationale: Force majeure excuses performance due to uncontrollable events.
18. Which tool is used to monitor contract milestones?
A. SPD delegation letter
B. Contract management plan
C. Vendor protest log
D. Ethics disclosure form
Rationale: Plans outline deliverables, timelines, and monitoring.
19. Payment schedules must align with:
Questions and Answers
1. Which Texas statute governs statewide procurement authority?
A. Texas Government Code Chapter 2254
B. Texas Government Code Chapter 2155
C. Texas Administrative Code Title 10
D. Texas Business & Commerce Code
Rationale: Chapter 2155 establishes SPD authority over procurement.
2. Before an agency can issue solicitations, what must be completed?
A. Vendor registration
B. CTCD certification
C. Contract amendment
D. SPD audit
Rationale: Certification ensures compliance knowledge before delegation.
3. Which solicitation method is used for professional services?
A. Invitation for Bid (IFB)
B. Request for Proposal (RFP)
C. Request for Qualifications (RFQ)
D. Sole source procurement
Rationale: RFQ is mandated for professional services under Texas law.
4. Best practice for mitigating vendor performance risk?
A. Rely on vendor reputation
B. Include performance metrics
C. Use verbal agreements
D. Avoid penalties
Rationale: Metrics and remedies ensure accountability.
5. Which clause protects the state from unforeseen vendor failure?
A. Termination for convenience
B. Arbitration clause
C. Force majeure
D. Indemnification
Rationale: Allows the state to end contracts without cause.
6. Conflict of interest disclosures are required by:
A. Texas Ethics Commission
B. SPD internal policy
C. Vendor self-certification
D. Comptroller’s Office
Rationale: Ethics Commission enforces conflict rules.
,7. Which procurement method requires HUB (Historically Underutilized Business)
participation plans?
A. Purchases under $5,000
B. Competitive sealed proposals
C. Sole source contracts
D. Emergency purchases
Rationale: HUB plans are mandatory for large competitive solicitations.
Contract Administration
8. What is the primary purpose of a contract amendment?
A. To terminate the contract
B. To modify terms
C. To reassign vendors
D. To bypass procurement rules
Rationale: Amendments adjust scope, cost, or duration.
9. Which document tracks vendor compliance during contract execution?
A. Procurement plan
B. Contract management log
C. SPD delegation letter
D. Vendor registration form
Rationale: Logs ensure performance monitoring.
10. An agency discovers a vendor failed to meet delivery deadlines. What is the first
step?
A. Terminate the contract immediately
B. Issue a cure notice
C. File a lawsuit
D. Suspend payments
Rationale: Cure notice gives vendor chance to correct performance.
11. Which solicitation method is best for commodities with clear specifications?
A. RFP
B. IFB
C. RFQ
D. Sole source
Rationale: Invitation for Bid is used when requirements are straightforward and price is
the main factor.
12. Evaluation criteria in an RFP must be:
A. Hidden from vendors
B. Published in advance
C. Decided after proposals
D. Optional
, Rationale: Transparency requires criteria to be disclosed in the solicitation.
13. Which evaluation method balances technical merit and cost?
A. Lowest bid only
B. Best value
C. Sole source
D. HUB preference
Rationale: Best value considers both quality and price.
14. What is required before awarding a contract to a vendor?
A. Vendor must be registered in CMBL
B. Vendor must have HUB certification
C. Vendor must submit a protest
D. Vendor must waive liability
Rationale: Centralized Master Bidders List ensures vendor eligibility.
15. Vendor protests must be filed within:
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Rationale: Texas law requires protests within 10 business days of notice.
16. Which clause protects the state from vendor bankruptcy?
A. Indemnification
B. Termination for cause
C. Arbitration
D. Cure notice
Rationale: Termination for cause allows ending contracts due to vendor failure.
17. Force majeure clauses cover:
A. Vendor negligence
B. Unforeseen natural disasters
C. Contract mismanagement
D. SPD audits
Rationale: Force majeure excuses performance due to uncontrollable events.
18. Which tool is used to monitor contract milestones?
A. SPD delegation letter
B. Contract management plan
C. Vendor protest log
D. Ethics disclosure form
Rationale: Plans outline deliverables, timelines, and monitoring.
19. Payment schedules must align with:
