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NUR 2502 Exam 2: Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3) Verified and Updated Questions and Answers

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NUR 2502 Exam 2: Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3) Verified and Updated Questions and Answers

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NUR 2502 Exam 2: Multidimensional Care III
(MDC 3) Verified and Updated Questions and
Answers
1. A nurse is teaching a client with GERD about lifestyle modifications. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A. I will wait at least 3 hours after eating before lying down.

B. I will eat three large meals a day to keep my stomach full.

C. I will avoid drinking caffeine and alcohol.

D. I will sleep with the head of my bed elevated.

Answer: B
Explanation: Clients with GERD should eat small, frequent meals rather than large meals
to prevent gastric distention and reflux.

2. Which diagnostic test is considered the ‘gold standard’ for diagnosing Peptic
Ulcer Disease (PUD)?

A. Barium swallow

B. Urea breath test

C. Stool antigen test

D. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

Answer: D
Explanation: EGD allows direct visualization of the gastric and duodenal mucosa and
provides the opportunity for biopsies.

,3. A client is diagnosed with Heliobacter pylori infection. Which medication
combination is typically prescribed?

A. Antacids and an H2 receptor antagonist

B. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and two antibiotics

C. NSAIDs and a corticosteroid

D. Laxatives and a stool softener

Answer: B
Explanation: Triple therapy for H. pylori usually includes a PPI and two antibiotics (such
as clarithromycin and amoxicillin) for 10-14 days.

4. A client post-gastrectomy reports dizziness, sweating, and palpitations 20
minutes after eating. What condition is likely occurring?

A. Dumping syndrome

B. Gastrointestinal perforation

C. Pernicious anemia

D. Paralytic ileus

Answer: A
Explanation: Dumping syndrome occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach
into the small intestine, causing rapid fluid shifts and vasomotor symptoms.

5. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a client with Ulcerative
Colitis?

A. Fistula formation

B. 10-20 bloody stools per day

C. ‘Skip’ lesions throughout the GI tract

D. Pain in the right lower quadrant

Answer: B
Explanation: Ulcerative colitis is characterized by continuous inflammation of the colon
leading to frequent, bloody, mucus-containing stools.

,6. A client with Crohn’s disease is at high risk for which complication?

A. Toxic megacolon

B. Liver failure

C. Hemorrhoids

D. Fistulas and abscesses

Answer: D
Explanation: Crohn’s disease involves transmural inflammation (all layers of the bowel),
which frequently leads to fistulas, strictures, and abscesses.

7. Which physical assessment finding suggests a possible bowel obstruction in
the small intestine?

A. Abdominal distention with high-pitched bowel sounds above the obstruction

B. Hard, board-like abdomen with no pain

C. Profuse diarrhea with visible parasites

D. Left lower quadrant pain relieved by defecation

Answer: A
Explanation: In early bowel obstruction, bowel sounds are typically hyperactive or high-
pitched proximal to the blockage as the body tries to push contents through.

8. A nurse is caring for a client with peritonitis. What is the priority nursing
intervention?

A. Assisting the client to ambulate

B. Preparing the client for emergency surgery or starting IV antibiotics

C. Providing a high-fiber diet

D. Applying a warm compress to the abdomen

Answer: B
Explanation: Peritonitis is a life-threatening emergency requiring rapid intervention with
antibiotics and often surgical repair of the underlying cause.

, 9. A client with a new colostomy is concerned about the stoma looking red and
moist. What is the nurse’s best response?

A. A healthy stoma should be reddish-pink and moist.

B. The stoma should be pale pink; I will notify the surgeon.

C. This is a sign of infection and needs immediate attention.

D. We need to apply a dry dressing to dry out the stoma.

Answer: A
Explanation: A healthy stoma should be beefy red or pink and moist. A pale, purple, or
black stoma indicates impaired blood flow.

10. Which laboratory value is the most specific indicator of acute pancreatitis?

A. Serum Amylase

B. Serum Calcium

C. White blood cell count

D. Serum Lipase

Answer: D
Explanation: While both amylase and lipase rise in pancreatitis, lipase stays elevated
longer and is more specific to the pancreas.

11. A client with acute pancreatitis reports severe abdominal pain. Which
position is most likely to provide relief?

A. Supine with legs extended

B. High-Fowler’s position

C. Trendelenburg position

D. Fetal position or leaning forward

Answer: D
Explanation: Leaning forward or assuming a fetal position helps reduce the tension on the
peritoneum and relieves pancreatic pain.

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