Comprehensive Maternity & Women’s
Health Verified Questions, Answers &
Rationales
Unit 1: Foundations of Maternity & Women’s Health
1. A nurse is reviewing the trends in maternal mortality in the United States. According to the latest
2025 data, which intervention has shown the most significant impact on reducing postpartum
hemorrhage deaths?
a) Routine use of prophylactic oxytocin for all births
b) Universal iron supplementation starting in the first trimester
c) Mandatory forceps delivery for prolonged second stage
d) Delayed cord clamping for 5 minutes
Correct Answer: a) Routine use of prophylactic oxytocin for all births
Rationale: The leading cause of maternal mortality is postpartum hemorrhage. The implementation of
active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL), specifically prophylactic oxytocin immediately
after birth, remains the most effective evidence-based intervention to prevent hemorrhage. While
delayed cord clamping is beneficial for the neonate, oxytocin directly prevents uterine atony.
2. A patient tells the nurse, "I think I am pregnant. My last menstrual period was 10 weeks ago, but I
have had spotting for the past two days." What is the nurse’s priority action?
a) Reassure the patient that spotting is normal in the first trimester.
b) Instruct the patient to take a home pregnancy test.
c) Ask the patient if she has experienced any sharp, unilateral abdominal pain.
d) Schedule a routine prenatal visit for next week.
Correct Answer: c) Ask the patient if she has experienced any sharp, unilateral abdominal pain.
Rationale: The combination of a positive pregnancy test (presumed) with spotting and the timing (10
weeks) raises suspicion for ectopic pregnancy. The classic triad of ectopic pregnancy is abdominal pain,
amenorrhea, and vaginal bleeding. The nurse must first assess for signs of a potential life-threatening
emergency, such as sharp, unilateral pain.
, 3. A nurse is providing genetic counseling to a couple of Ashkenazi Jewish descent. Which condition
should the nurse prioritize for screening based on this demographic?
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Tay-Sachs disease
d) Beta-thalassemia
Correct Answer: c) Tay-Sachs disease
Rationale: Tay-Sachs disease has a higher carrier rate in individuals of Ashkenazi Jewish (Eastern
European) descent. Sickle cell anemia is more common in African descent; Cystic fibrosis is common in
Caucasians; Beta-thalassemia is common in Mediterranean or Southeast Asian descent.
Unit 2: Pregnancy
4. A woman at 38 weeks gestation is admitted for decreased fetal movement. A biophysical profile
(BPP) is performed. Which score would indicate chronic fetal asphyxia requiring immediate delivery?
a) 10/10
b) 8/10 (with normal amniotic fluid)
c) 6/10 (with normal amniotic fluid)
d) 4/10
Correct Answer: d) 4/10
Rationale: A BPP score of 4 or less is considered abnormal and indicates significant fetal compromise. A
score of 6 is equivocal; 8 or 10 is normal. The components include fetal breathing movements, gross
body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume (a chronic marker), and reactive non-stress test.
5. A patient with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) at 32 weeks asks why she needs to have an
ultrasound. What is the primary reason for this third-trimester ultrasound?
a) To determine the gender of the baby
b) To assess for fetal macrosomia and amniotic fluid volume
c) To perform a nuchal translucency screening
d) To confirm the gestational age for dating
Correct Answer: b) To assess for fetal macrosomia and amniotic fluid volume
Rationale: In GDM, poor glycemic control can lead to fetal macrosomia (large body) and polyhydramnios
(excess amniotic fluid). Third-trimester ultrasounds are used to monitor for these complications to plan
for safe delivery. Dating and gender are typically done earlier.
6. A nurse is administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to a client at 28 weeks gestation. The
client asks why this is necessary. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
a) "It destroys the Rh antibodies your body has already made against the baby."
Health Verified Questions, Answers &
Rationales
Unit 1: Foundations of Maternity & Women’s Health
1. A nurse is reviewing the trends in maternal mortality in the United States. According to the latest
2025 data, which intervention has shown the most significant impact on reducing postpartum
hemorrhage deaths?
a) Routine use of prophylactic oxytocin for all births
b) Universal iron supplementation starting in the first trimester
c) Mandatory forceps delivery for prolonged second stage
d) Delayed cord clamping for 5 minutes
Correct Answer: a) Routine use of prophylactic oxytocin for all births
Rationale: The leading cause of maternal mortality is postpartum hemorrhage. The implementation of
active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL), specifically prophylactic oxytocin immediately
after birth, remains the most effective evidence-based intervention to prevent hemorrhage. While
delayed cord clamping is beneficial for the neonate, oxytocin directly prevents uterine atony.
2. A patient tells the nurse, "I think I am pregnant. My last menstrual period was 10 weeks ago, but I
have had spotting for the past two days." What is the nurse’s priority action?
a) Reassure the patient that spotting is normal in the first trimester.
b) Instruct the patient to take a home pregnancy test.
c) Ask the patient if she has experienced any sharp, unilateral abdominal pain.
d) Schedule a routine prenatal visit for next week.
Correct Answer: c) Ask the patient if she has experienced any sharp, unilateral abdominal pain.
Rationale: The combination of a positive pregnancy test (presumed) with spotting and the timing (10
weeks) raises suspicion for ectopic pregnancy. The classic triad of ectopic pregnancy is abdominal pain,
amenorrhea, and vaginal bleeding. The nurse must first assess for signs of a potential life-threatening
emergency, such as sharp, unilateral pain.
, 3. A nurse is providing genetic counseling to a couple of Ashkenazi Jewish descent. Which condition
should the nurse prioritize for screening based on this demographic?
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Tay-Sachs disease
d) Beta-thalassemia
Correct Answer: c) Tay-Sachs disease
Rationale: Tay-Sachs disease has a higher carrier rate in individuals of Ashkenazi Jewish (Eastern
European) descent. Sickle cell anemia is more common in African descent; Cystic fibrosis is common in
Caucasians; Beta-thalassemia is common in Mediterranean or Southeast Asian descent.
Unit 2: Pregnancy
4. A woman at 38 weeks gestation is admitted for decreased fetal movement. A biophysical profile
(BPP) is performed. Which score would indicate chronic fetal asphyxia requiring immediate delivery?
a) 10/10
b) 8/10 (with normal amniotic fluid)
c) 6/10 (with normal amniotic fluid)
d) 4/10
Correct Answer: d) 4/10
Rationale: A BPP score of 4 or less is considered abnormal and indicates significant fetal compromise. A
score of 6 is equivocal; 8 or 10 is normal. The components include fetal breathing movements, gross
body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume (a chronic marker), and reactive non-stress test.
5. A patient with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) at 32 weeks asks why she needs to have an
ultrasound. What is the primary reason for this third-trimester ultrasound?
a) To determine the gender of the baby
b) To assess for fetal macrosomia and amniotic fluid volume
c) To perform a nuchal translucency screening
d) To confirm the gestational age for dating
Correct Answer: b) To assess for fetal macrosomia and amniotic fluid volume
Rationale: In GDM, poor glycemic control can lead to fetal macrosomia (large body) and polyhydramnios
(excess amniotic fluid). Third-trimester ultrasounds are used to monitor for these complications to plan
for safe delivery. Dating and gender are typically done earlier.
6. A nurse is administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to a client at 28 weeks gestation. The
client asks why this is necessary. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
a) "It destroys the Rh antibodies your body has already made against the baby."
