HOSA Pharmacology Exam (Latest 2026–2027 Edition) | 100% Accurate Questions & Verified Solutions | Top Grade Assurance

…..DLDD HOSA Pharmacology Exam (Latest 2026–2027 Edition) | 100% Accurate Questions & Verified Solutions | Top Grade Assurance Q. 1. The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as A. pharmacotherapeutics B. pharmacodynamics C. pharmacokinetics D. pharmacy E. posology ANSWERS C Q. 2. The medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to as A. side effect B. adverse effect C. drug allergy D. contraindication E. antagonism ANSWERS D Q. 3. An unusual or unexpected drug reaction by an individual is known as A. toxic effect B. antagonism C. idiosyncrasy D. side effect E. drug allergy ANSWERS C Q. 4. The proprietary drug name supplied by a pharmaceutical company is also referred to as the A. generic name B. over-the-counter name C. trade name D. chemical name E. none of these ANSWERS C Q. 5. The time from drug administration to the first observable drug effect is known as the A. duration of action B. onset of action C. ceiling effect D. maximal response E. ceiling effect ANSWERS B Q. 6. A drug that has the potential for abuse and is regulated by the Drug Enforcement Agency is classified as a A. poison B. OTC drug C. prescription drug D. controlled substance E. nonproprietary drug ANSWERS D Q. 7. Select the term below that relates to the amount of drug administered to produce a therapeutic effect. A. posology B. toxicology C. pharmacodynamics D. pharmacotherapeutics E. pharmacy ANSWERS A Q. 8. A medication that does not require a physician's service to obtain is referred to as A. trade B. nonproprietary C. nonprescription D. brand E. generic ANSWERS C Q. 9. Which of the following could be categorized as an adverse reaction? A. idiosyncrasy B. drug allergy C. teratogenicity D. carcinogenicity E. all of these ANSWERS E Q. 10. The time a drug continues to produce its effect is its A. ED50 B. maximal response C. ceiling effect D. onset of action E. duration of action ANSWERS E Q. The drug administration route demonstrating the slowest onset of action is A. inhalation B. transdermal C. intramuscular D. sublingual E. intravenous ANSWERS B Q. In order for drugs to cross the blood-brain barrier, they must be A. ionized B. positively charged C. water soluble D. lipid soluble E. negatively charged ANSWERS D Q. 13. First-pass metabolism refers to the metabolism of drugs in the A. kidney B. blood vessels C. liver D. heart E. adipose tissue ANSWERS C Q. 14. Drug X has a half-life of 6 hours. How much drug is left in the body 18 hours after an IV injection of 1200 milligrams (mg)? ANSWERS B Q. 15. Drugs that have demonstrated teratogenic effects in women are classified as Pregnancy Category A. B B. C C. D D. X E. NR ANSWERS D= x 16. When a drug increases the rate of drug metabolism of other drugs, the process is termed A. first-pass metabolism B. enzyme induction C. enzyme inhibition D. enterohepatic cycling E. microsomal inhibition B 17. The rate of drug absorption would be increased by which of the following? A. drug ionization B. water solubility C. positively charged drug D. negatively charged drug E. lipid solubility E 18. Which factor of individual variation is dependent upon the patient's attitude toward treatment? A. weight B. age C. genetic variation D. placebo effect E. gender D 19. Which FDA pregnancy category would appear to be the safest for a developing fetus? A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D E. Category X A 20. A 45-year-old female shop assistant is treated for heartburn with omeprazole. She notes that the effect of a dose of omeprazole lasts much longer than that of a dose of the antacid drug calcium carbonate she had previously taken. The active metabolite of omeprazole binds covalently and irreversibly to a molecular structure involved in releasing protons into the gastric juice. Drugs that modify their target structures through this mechanism are called suicide substrates. orphan drugs. protein drugs. competitive antagonists. enantiomers. A 21. A 36-year-old male has been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. His oncologist discusses treatment options with him. The patient is glad to hear that novel anticancer drugs used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia have a much better risk-benefit ratio than older ones, due to their improved selectivity. A major determinant for the selectivity of a given drug is A) its target receptor ligand affinity. B) its target receptor cell-type distribution. C) its ionic interactions. D) its hydrogen bonding. E) its intrinsic activity. B 22. A 56-year-old man with chest pain is diagnosed with stable angina and treated with several drugs including nitroglycerin. Every day he has to discontinue nitroglycerin for some hours to re-establish reactivity of his body to the drug. The clinical observation of a rapidly decreasing response to nitroglycerin after administration of just a few doses is called idiosyncrasy. tachyphylaxis. heterologous desensitization. refractoriness. receptor downregulation. B 23. Prolonged receptor stimulation during chronic drug therapy may induce cells to endocytose and sequester drug receptors in endocytic vesicles. This molecular mechanism is called A) tachyphylaxis. B) inactivation. C) desensitization. D) downregulation. E) refractoriness. D A 16-year-old female with a history of goiter is admitted with fever, profuse sweating, tachyarrhythmia, hypertension, abdominal pain, and anxiety. Based on a working diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, she is started on a beta-adrenoceptor antagonist that has a very short half-life. 24. Refer to the case above. Regarding the mechanism by which the drug ameliorates the toxic effects of excessive thyroxine levels, the drug acts as A) a physiologic antagonist. B) a competitive receptor antagonist. C) a noncompetitive receptor antagonist. D) a partial agonist. E) an inverse agonist. A 25. The main pharmacologic effect of norepinephrine on alpha-1 receptors is A. increased heart rate B. bronchodilation C. vasoconstriction D. contraction of urinary bladder E. increased force of myocardial contraction C 26. The pharmacologic effect of IV metaraminol (an alpha-1 drug) is A. vasodilation B. vasoconstriction C. cardiac stimulation D. cardiac depression E. bronchodilation B 27. Epinephrine stimulates A. alpha-1 receptors B. alpha-2 receptors C. beta-1 receptors D. beta-2 receptors E. all of these E 28. At therapeutic doses, albuterol stimulates A. alpha-1 receptors B. alpha-2 receptors C. beta-1 receptors D. beta-2 receptors E. all of these D 29. Metoprolol is classified as a(n) A. alpha-blocker B. nonselective beta-blocker C. selective beta-1 blocker D. adrenergic neuronal blocker E. selective beta-2 blocker C 30. The mechanism of action of methyldopa is A. increased release of NE from adrenergic nerve ending B. alpha-1 receptor blocker C. beta-1 receptor blocker D. formation of a false transmitter in adrenergic nerve ending E. none of these D 31. The drug of choice to treat acute allergic reactions is A. norepinephrine B. phenylephrine C. pseudoephedrine D. epinephrine E. propranolol D 32. Which of the following are actions of nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking drugs? A. decreasing heart rate B. decreasing force of myocardial contraction C. vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle blood vessels D. lowering of blood pressure E. all of these E 33. The actions of epinephrine (EPI) include which of the following? A. bronchodilation B. vasoconstriction C. relaxation of uterus D. increased heart rate E. all of these E 34. Parasympathetic receptors located on the membranes of the internal organs are classified as A. alpha-1 B. nicotinic-neural (Nn) C. nicotinic-muscle (Nm) D. muscarinic E. ganglionic D 35. Select the pharmacologic effect produced by cholinergic drugs. A. increased heart rate B. increased gastrointestinal motility C. decreased urination D. pupillary dilation E. bronchodilation B 36. Physostigmine (Eserine ) is classified as a(n) A. direct-acting cholinergic drug B. reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor C. irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor D. anticholinergic drug E. ganglionic blocker B 37. Symptoms of cholinergic drug overdosage include A. slow pulse rate B. increased urination C. diarrhea D. sweating E. all of these E 38. Anticholinergic effects include all of the following except A. bronchodilation B. increased heart rate C. increased gastrointestinal activity D. decreased respiratory secretions E. dry mouth C 39. The antidote for atropine poisoning is A. scopolamine B. bethanechol C. neostigmine D. physostigmine E. dicyclomine D 40. Pick the correct pharmacological effect(s) of direct-acting cholinergic drugs. A. respiratory paralysis B. urinary retention C. increased heart rate D. bronchodilation E. none of these E 41. Which of the following would be a preferred treatment for overactive bladder? A. neostigmine B. tolterodine C. physostigmine D. bethanechol E. donepezil B 42. Which of the following is correct about the nicotinic-muscle (Nm) receptor blocking drugs? A. the mechanism of action is the same as represented by dantrolene B. all of these drugs depolarize the muscle fiber before blockade occurs C. calcium ions are released from the storage sites D. there are two groups in this class: either depolarizing agents or nondepolarizing agents E. botulinumtoxinA rapidly attaches to these receptors D 43. Succinylcholine is associated with which of the following actions? A. stimulation of the actin and myosin muscle fibrils directly B. liver damage because the drug is metabolized only by the liver C. peripheral neuromuscular receptor blockade after stimulating the Nm receptors D. longer duration of action than vecuronium E. stimulation of presynaptic ACH release C 44. Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants A. include dantrolene and cisatracurium B. inhibit or reduce activity within the spinal cord (intraneuronal), interrupting the central stimulus to muscle contraction C. can only be given parenterally D. cause systemic release of histamine, leading to hypotension E. counteract the effect of botulinumtoxin B B 45. Skeletal muscle relaxants may alter control of respiration because A. the diaphragm is a skeletal muscle B. succinylcholine stimulates the respiratory centers in the brain C. like dantrolene, all muscle relaxants inhibit the action of norepinephrine at the neuromuscular junction D. relaxation of the muscles in the lower extremities pulls blood away from the lungs E. all skeletal muscle relaxants interfere with calcium ion storage in the muscle A 46. Select the drug or condition(s) that decrease the effects of neuromuscular blockers. A. neomycin B. corticosteroids C. general anesthetics like isoflurane D. alcohol E. myasthenia gravis and spinal cord lesions B 47. Which of the following is a way in which skeletal muscles are relaxed? A. blockage of conduction in the spinal cord B. inhibiting nerve transmission C. blockage of the Nm receptors D. decreasing ACH in the neuromuscular junction E. all of these E 48. Select reasons for using muscle relaxants during surgical or diagnostic procedures. A. reduce muscle tear B. decrease body temperature C. potentiate vasodilators D. increase muscle tone E. depress respiration A 49. Which of the following is NOT a potential adverse effect of peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants? A. difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) B. skeletal muscle weakness C. decreased respiration D. bronchospasm E. muscle fasciculations C 50. In the presynaptic terminal of neuronal cells, the immediate trigger to release a neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft is A) a drop in cytosolic Ca2+. B) a drop in cytosolic K+. C) a rise in cytosolic Ca2+. D) a drop in cytosolic Mg2+. E) a rise in cytosolic K+. F) a rise in cytosolic Mg2+. C 51. A 17-year-old girl with suspected intrinsic asthma but nearly normal results on spirometry and flow volume testing takes a methacholine provocative test. The mechanism of action of methacholine most closely resembles that of hemicholinium. acetylcholine. edrophonium. succinylcholine. neostigmine. B 52. The muscarinic receptor that couples to G proteins responsible for adenylyl cyclase inhibition and plays a key role in cholinergic input to the heart is classified as muscarinic-M1 receptor. muscarinic-M2 receptor. muscarinic-M3 receptor. muscarinic-M4 receptor. muscarinic-M5 receptor. B 53. A 25-year old female presents with delirium, hyperthermia, and symptoms of central anticholinergic intoxication. She has attended a ìwitches' conventî and ingested some herbal extracts including fruits of the species ìAtropa belladonna.î As one component of her treatment, she receives a dose of physostigmine. Refer to the case above. Physostigmine is preferred over neostigmine because A) it is a nonpolar compound that penetrates the CNS more easily than neostigmine. B) it has a shorter half-life than neostigmine, making it more useful for emergency treatment. C) it has a longer half-life than neostigmine, better matching the half-life of atropine. D) it is eliminated via the kidneys, and dosage is not critical with compromised liver function. E) it is eliminated via the liver, and dosage is not critical with compromised renal function. A 54. Which of the following is a correct statement? A. opioid analgesics produce little or no respiration depression with long-term use of analgesic doses B. opioid antagonists include endorphins C. all drugs in the opioid analgesic group are controlled substances, Schedule III D. in low doses, opioids produce nausea and vomiting E. fentanyl is a partial opioid antagonist D 55. Oxycodone in therapeutic doses can stimulate mu receptors to cause A. hyperventilation and deep breathing B. bronchospasms C. spasmogenic activity in the ureters and sphincter muscle D. relaxation of the skeletal muscles controlling posture (spasmolytic) E. suppression of coughing D 56. Opioid analgesics are used in which of the following settings? A. induction of Monitored Anesthesia Care and treatment of chronic severe pain B. routine treatment of migraine C. unmonitored treatment of chronic severe pain D. analgesia for patients with paralytic ileus E. chronic osteoarthritis A 57. Which of the following is a correct statement? A. endorphin is an abbreviation from the terms meaning inside the organ B. endogenous opioid receptors include mu, alpha-2 adrenergic, and delta receptors C. agonism means the drug occupies the receptor and causes a response D. opioid agonism means the drug occupies the receptor and stimulates the release of endorphins E. tolerance is a characteristic of chronic opioid antagonism C 58. Which of the following drugs has a recognized medical therapy and does not interact with opioid receptors? A. heroin B. codeine C. methadone D. acetaminophen D 59. All opioid analgesics are associated with which of the following? A. reversal of respiratory depression from barbiturates B. use only for the relief of acute pain C. cough suppression alone or in combination with other analgesics over-the-counter D. tolerance develops to the analgesic response E. drug of choice in treating biliary obstruction D 60. Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic that A. can be used for relief of cancer pain B. has many formulations (lozenge, film) because it is used routinely in dental surgery C. induces neuropathic pain D. primarily works on peripheral nerve endings rather than higher centers E. does not have a black box warning because of its low addiction potential A 61. Sharp pain is transmitted through which type of nerve fibers? A. unmyelinated B. myelinated A-delta C. CTZ D. C fibers E. mu fibers in the intestine B 62. Opioid drugs are derived from which of the following? A. poppy B. opium C. chemical synthesis D. alkaloids E. all of these E 63. Select the adverse effects of opioid analgesics. A. constipation B. polyuria C. convulsions D. mydriasis E. excessive tearing A 64. During tolerance to opioid analgesics, the following is happening. A. fewer receptors are available to produce a response B. increased pain by the patient requires greater doses of medication C. the body reacts to removal of the opioid analgesic D. histamine release causes hypotension E. signals from nocieocptors are reduced A 65. What is the best reason for using a balanced anesthesia strategy? (LO 18.1) A. producing complementary effects using a few drugs avoids unnecessary intense (deep) CNS depression with one anesthetic to achieve the same effect B. the concentration of volatile anesthetic in the alveoli is balanced against the amount of anesthetic in the blood C. less monitoring of anesthesia is required D. fewer patients experience emergence delirium E. there is less chance of aspirating saliva A 66. Why is propofol a drug of choice for induction and maintenance of anesthesia? A. it is a potent analgesic at all doses B. it slowly brings the patient to the stage of surgical anesthesia C. it is a complete anesthetic with a quick onset of action and recovery period uncomplicated by nausea and vomiting D. it is administered by special vaporizer to avoid mask delivery E. its preparation does not require special handling technique C 67. Which of the following is NOT correct? A. ketamine causes chloride ions to flow out of the nerve cell by binding to GABA B. propofol binds to the GABA A receptor and enhances hyperpolarization of the neuron C. barbiturates and propofol act on the receptor and directly on the chloride channel D. potent anesthetics enhance GABA A receptor function E. general anesthetics interact with neurotransmitter-gated ion channels A 68. Which of the following major routes remove etomidate and midazolam from the body? A. hepatic metabolism and renal excretion B. excretion through the lungs and sweating C. accumulation in fat tissue and redistribution D. increased salivation and bile production E. gastrointestinal reabsorption A 69. Select the types of anesthesia in which there is no loss of consciousness. A. local anesthesia B. Monitored Anesthesia Care C. general anesthesia D. balanced anesthesia E. maintenance anesthesia A 70. Choose the correct class of general anesthetics. A. intravenous B. dissociative anesthesia C. oral D. topical E. epidural A 71. Which drugs would be used as adjunct therapy to anesthesia? A. analgesics B. antiarrhythmics C. antianxiety, short-acting CNS depressants like midazolam D. anticholinergics E. all of these E 1.Barbiturate and benzodiazepine hypnotics both A. increase NREM stage 2 sleep B. increase REM sleep C. increase NREM stage 4 sleep D. cause REM rebound E. all of these statements are true A. increase NREM stage 2 sleep 2.Disadvantages to the use of barbiturate hypnotics include A. development of drug tolerance B. risk of drug dependency C. disruption of normal stages of sleep D. suppression of REM sleep E. all of these statements are true E. all of these statements are true 3. The correct statement concerning the use of hypnotic drugs is A. zolpidem binds to the GABAB receptor B. benzodiazepines increase chloride channel opening C. barbiturates block the GABA receptor D. ramelteon is a melatonin antagonist E. flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor agonist B. benzodiazepines increase chloride channel opening 4. Flurazepam A. is classified as long-acting B. forms active metabolites C. may cause next-day residual effects D. increases chloride ion influx E. all of these statements are true E. all of these statements are true 5. Eszopiclone A. is classified as a benzodiazepine B. has a half-life of 1-2 hours C. increases total sleep time D. is used as an antianxiety agent E. is also used as an anticonvulsant C. increases total sleep time 6. Zolpidem A. binds to the benzodiazepine-1 (BZD1) receptor B. is useful as a muscle relaxant C. has a slow onset of action D. is useful as an anticonvulsant E. is chemically classified as a benzodiazepine real answer is Bound to the alpha subunit receptor 7. Alcohol has pharmacological effects on which body systems? A. central nervous system B. gastrointestinal system C. renal system D. vascular system E. all of these E. all of these 1.The main pharmacologic effect of the SSRIs is A. increase levels of norepinephrine B. increase levels of serotonin C. decrease levels of norepinephrine D. decrease levels of serotonin E. decrease levels of dopamine B. increase levels of serotonin The pharmacologic effects of TCAs include A. alpha-adrenergic blockade B. antihistaminic C. anticholinergic D. sedation E. all of the above E. all of the above 3. The serotonin syndrome is mainly associated with overdosage of A. tricyclic antidepressants B. monoamine oxidase inhibitors C. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors D. psychomotor stimulants E. lithium E. lithium 4.The main pharmacologic effects of TCAs on neurotransmitter activity is A. increase norepinephrine B. increase acetylcholine C. increase serotonin D. increase norepinephrine and serotonin only E. increase norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and serotonin D. increase norepinephrine and serotonin only 5. Venlafaxine (Effexor) is classified as A. MAOI B. TCA C. SSRI D. SNRI E. psychomotor stimulant D. SNRI 6. Adverse effects of TCAs include A. liver toxicity B. cardiac arrhythmias C. convulsions D. postural hypotension E. all of these E. all of these 7. Which of these represents the drug that is not correctly matched with its drug classification? A. paroxetine—SSRI B. amitriptyline—TCA C. methylphenidate—MAOI this is targets dop transporter D. duloxetine—SNRI E. phenelzine—MAOI C. methylphenidate—MAOI this is targets dop transporter 8. Which drug requires a dietary restriction for foods containing tyramine? A. nortriptyline (TCA) B. tranylcypromine (MAOI) C. venlafaxine (SNRI) D. fluoxetine (SSRI) E. methamphetamine B. tranylcypromine (MAOI) 9. The site of action of diazepam (Valium) to relieve anxiety is the A. spinal cord B. limbic system C. reticular formation D. basal ganglia E. cerebellum B. limbic system 10. The antianxiety effect of buspirone (BuSpar) is associated with A. stimulation of DA receptors B. stimulation of serotonin receptors C. blockage of serotonin receptors D. blockade of dopamine receptors E. blockage of GABA receptors C. blockage of serotonin receptors 11. Flumazenil (Romazicon) is used to reverse the depressant effects of A. clozapine B. alprazolam (benzodiazepine) C. haloperidol D. chlorpromazine E. thiothixene alprazolam (benzodiazepine) 12. What are the main areas at which benzodiazepines exert their effects? A. limbic system B. cerebral cortex C. reticular formation D. spinal cord E. all of these E. all of these 1. Symptoms of Parkinsonism would be increased by A. excess levels of acetylcholine B. treatment with some antipsychotic drugs C. decreased levels of dopamine D. drug administration after a high-protein meal E. all of these I had ABC highlighted I think this was a mistake please edit 2. The drug classified as a dopamine receptor agonist is A. amantadine B. benztropine C. ropinirole D. entacapone (COMT) E. carbidopa C. ropinirole 3. Select the drugs that increase the duration of action of DA and/or the amount of levodopa that enters the brain. A. carbidopa B. tolcapone C. selegiline D. rasagiline E. all of these E. all of these 4. In Parkinson's disease, slowed movements are defined as A. rigidity B. bradykinesia C. tremor D. dystonia E. postural instability B. bradykinesia 5. Sinemet is the trade name of a drug combination that contains levodopa and A. carbidopa and entacapone B. entacapone C. carbidopa D. selegiline E. amantadine C. carbidopa 6. The COMT inhibitor that has been associated with causing liver toxicity is A. ropinirole B. entacapone C. pramipexole D. tolcapone E. benztropine D. tolcapone 7. Select the symptoms of Parkinson's disease A. muscular rigidity B. increased sweating C. salivary drooling D. movement disturbances E. all of these A and D 8. Which of the following drugs would be used to decrease the actions of ACH? A. amantadine B. levodopa C. bromocriptine D. procyclidine E. carbidopa D. procyclidine 9. Select the mechanisms by which levodopa works. A. crosses blood-brain barrier by an amino acid transporter B. converted to dopamine in the substantia nigra neurons C. increases level of dopamine in the brain D. peripheral metabolism to DA inhibited by carbidopa E. all of these E. all of these 10. Apomorphine is classified as A. MAO-B inhibitor B. dopamine receptor agonist C. COMT inhibitor D. anticholinergic drug E. DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor B. dopamine receptor agonist Schedule I This type of drug has no accepted medical use in the United States and has a high potential for abuse Schedule II drugs Accepted for medical use but with severe restrictions (high potential for abuse) Schedule III drugs Have low potential for abuse with an accepted medical use. Perscription only Schedule IV Abuse potential exists, but less than Sch III. Examples are: Ambien, Darvocet and Lorazepam. Schedule V drugs Lowest potential for abuse. May be sold OTC to people that show ID Pharmacokinesis the movement of drugs through the body via absorbtion, distribution, metabolism, and excretion drug blood level amount of a drug present in the blood plasma binding when proteins bind to drugs and decrease the amount of free-flowing drug in the bloodstream allowing the drug to stay in the body for longer. Examples of Sulfonamides Sulfamethoxazole, sulfisoxazole, sulfadiazine Uses for Sulfonamides Treating UTIs, Ulcerative colitis, 2nd and 3rd degree burns Drugs that interact with Sulfonamides Oral anticoagulants, methotrexate, and hydantoins What are the 4 groups of penicillin? Natural penicillins, penicillinase-resistant penicillins, aminopenicillins, extended-spectrum penicillins Uses for Penicillins UTIs, Septicemia, Meningitis, Intra-Abdominal infections, Sexually Transmitted Infections (syphilis), Pneumonia and other respiratory infections What variables can effect drug dosage? Weight, Age, Height, Gender, Genetics, Diet Another name for antianxiety drugs Anxiolytics Benzodiazepines category 4 meds 3 Examples of antianxiety drugs alprazolam, doxepin, lorazepam Acroynm for cancer in adults? CAUTION What are the common signs of childhood cancer and the abbriviation? CHILD CANCER C ontinued unexplained weight loss H eadaches, often with early morning vomiting I ncreased swelling or persistant pain in bones, joints, back, or legs L ump or mass, especially in the abdomen, neck, chest, pelvis, or armpits D evelopment of excessive bruising, bleeding, or rash C onstant infection A whitish color behind the pupil N ausea that that persists or vomiting without nausea C onstant tiredness or noticeable paleness E ye or vision changes that occur suddenly and persist R ecurrent and persistent fevers of unknown origin What chemotherapy targets? Fast-dividing cells What is another name for antineoplastic agents? chemotherapeutic agents What is an anticonvulsant? A drug used to treat seizures, neuropathic pain, Bipolar disorder, and anxiety disorder How do anticonvulsants work? By depressing abnormal nerve impulse discharges in the CNS (central nervous system) A person taking oral contraceptive should not take anticonvulsants anticonvulsants? diazepam Which name (trade or generic) starts with a lowercase letter? Generic What are the 5 stages of the cell cycle? G1, S, G2, M, G0 Select the option that shows the cell kill theory. 90% of 100% Killed, 10% left 90% of 10% Killed, 1% left Body attacks rest of cancer gemcitabine Used for Solid tumors: pancreatic, NSCLC platinum-based drugs cisplatin, oxaliplatin, carboplatin What drug has the chemical formula of C16H20FN3O4? linezolid What is one example of a Topical Anti inflammatory or Corticosteroid Agent? hydrocortisone Receptor site A molecular site or the docking port on the surface of, or within, a cell, usually involving proteins that are capable of recognizing and binding with specific molecules. Supplement. For example: CD4 receptor on the surface of certain cells is the receptor site that HIV binds with and uses to enter cells. First pass metabolism of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation or through absorption. unbound Drug a drug is kept in the bloodstream Glycoside a sugar is bound to another functional group Habituation tolerance to the effects of a drug acquired through continued use. Hypersensitivity reaction an immune-mediated reaction to a drug. Ideal drug effective and safe, producing no side effects or adverse reactions Idiosyncratic An unexpected, unusual response to a Drug. Indication reason to use a particular drug for a particular disorder. Alkaloid A drug that is combined with acids to make salts Distribution a branch of pharmacokinetics which describes the reversible transfer of a drug from one location to another within the body. Antagonist Medication that binds to a receptor allergic reaction Hypersensitivity to a drug Curative Medication prescribed to kill the causative agents Demulcent Drug used to soothe a body part or to relieve symptoms of irritation Dimensional analysis Newer method of calculating drug dosages based on fractions Solvent Fluid in which a solid dissolves; also called the diluent. antagonism Cancellation or reduction of one drug's effect by another drug nonprescription drugs safe when taken as directed, can be obtained without a prescription. prescription drugs potentially harmful unless their use is supervised by a licensed health care provider, such as a nurse practitioner, physician, or dentist. In what drug schedule would you find heroine and other specialty drugs? Schedule 1