BIOD102/ BIOD102 Module 5 – Essential Biology II (Portage Learning) 2026/2027 | Verified Q&A | 100% Correct Answers | A+

BIOD102/ BIOD102 Module 5 – Essential Biology II (Portage Learning) 2026/2027 | Verified Q&A | 100% Correct Answers | A+ Q: What lead to the Cambrian explosion and the decline of the Ediacaran biota ? a. New predator prey relationships b. A rise in atmospheric oxygen levels c. Evolution of the HOX gene complex d. All are possible causes of the Cambrian explosion all are possible causes of the cambrian explosion Q: What is a notochord? a. Tube of nerve fibers along the dorsal side of the body b. Single long nerve that runs along the ventral side of the animal c. Hard rod of bone d. Stiff rod of cartilage stiff rod of cartilage Q: Invertebrates account for what percentage of known species on Earth? a. 25% b. 50% c. 85% d. 95% 95% Q: The Cambrian explosion is an example of: a. A mass extinction event b. A period of intense volcanic activity c. Adaptive radiation d. Evolutionary stasis adaptive radiation Q: Sponges have true tissues and radial body symmetry. true or false? false Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the four derived characteristics of chordates? a. Pre-anal tail b. Dorsal hollow nerve cord c. Pharyngeal slits d. Notochord pre-anal tail Q: Cleavage leads to the formation of a multicellular, hollow ___________. a. Blastula b. Egg c. Gastrula d. Zygote blastula Q: What gives sponges their stiff structure? a. Lignin b. Firm cell walls c. Collagen d. Spicules spicules Q: Which of the following groups displays the four characteristics of a chordate but only in its short larval stage? a. Urochordates b. Vertebrates c. Cephalochordates d. Invertebrates urochordates Q: The process of gastrulation is best described as: a. An invagination of the blastula b. The cleavage of the zygote c. The division of the zygote to the eight cell stage d. The formation of the blastocoel an invagination of the blastula Q: Which of the following is a good description of cnidarians? a. They are all mobile, without true tissues, and have stinging cells b. They are sessile, without true tissues, and have stinging cells c. They can be mobile or sessile, have true tissues, & have stinging cells d. The are mobile, with true tissues, and have stinging cells they can be mobile or sessile, have true tissues, and have stinging cells Q: In humans, what is the remnant of the notochord? a. All of the ebove b. The disks in between the vertebra c. The spinal nerve fibers d. The bony vertebra the disks in between the vertebra Q: Which of the following are potential functions of pharyngeal slits? a. They can be used for filter feeding b. They can be modified for oxygen/carbon dioxide exchange c. They can be modified into parts of the ears, head, and neck d. All of these all of these Q: A juvenile is smaller than an adult but has attained sexual maturity. t or f? false Q: What specialized cells create a water current through the body of a sponge? a. Nematocysts b. Spicules c. Choanocytes d. Osculum chonanocytes Q: What type of body plan has an anterior, posterior, dorsal, ventral, top and bottom? a. A diploblastic body plan b. A bilateral body plan c. A radial body plan d. A triploblastic body plan a bilateral body plan Q: A jelly is an example of a ________ cnidarian body plan. a. Triploblastic b. Polyp c. Medusa d. Mesodermic medusa Q: Which of the following statements about hagfishes and lampreys is FALSE? a. They have a complete backbone b. They have rudimentary vertebra c. They lack jaws d. They are mostly marine they have a complete backbone Q: The interior "pocket" in the blastula, lined with endodermic tissue, is called the _____ a. Blastocoel b. Gastropore c. Archenteron d. Blastopore archenteron Q: Why are do flatworms have such a thin body structure? a. They are coelomates b. They are pseudocoelomates c. They are acoelomates they are acoelomates Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of gnathostomes? a. They have jaws b. They have a duplication of HOX genes c. They have an enlarged forebrain d. All are characteristics all of these are characteristics Q: Which of the following is descriptive of protostomes? a. Spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus b. Spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth c. Radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus d. Radial and indeterminate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth Q: Planarians have a primitive nerve system that is located on the _______ side of their body. a. Posterior b. Ventral c. Dorsal d. Anterior ventral Sharks and skates are part of which vertebrate group? a. Chondrichthyans b. Sarcopterygii c. Actinopterygii d. Osteichthyans chondrichthyans Which were the first group to evolve a bony skeleton? a. Sharks and rays b. Ray fin and lobe fin fish c. Hagfish and Lampreys d. They all developed bony skeletons ray fin and lobe fin fish Which of the following is an example of an annelid? a. Roundworm b. Nematode c. Planaria d. Earthworm earthworm Which germ layer covers the exterior of the embryo (gastrula)? a. Mesoderm b. Endoderm c. Ectoderm d.It depends on whether an animal is diploblastic or triploblastic ectoderm Which type of animal has a mesoderm but lacks a body cavity between the body wall and digestive tract? a. An acoelomate b. A coelomate c. A pseudocoelomate d. A diploblastic animal anacoelomate Where do earthworms get most of their nutrition? a. They eat other, smaller worms b. They eat soil c. They eat vegetation d. They eat photosynthetic bacteria they eat soil Which of the following is NOT a derived characteristic of tetrapods? a. Four limbs with feet and digits b. A movable neck c. Fusion of the pelvic girdle to the backbone d. A lateral line system for detecting vibrations a lateral line system for detecting vibrations What does indeterminant cleavage NOT mean? a. The cells are embryonic stem cells b. Cells retain pluripotency c. The cells can split in early stage to become twins d. Cells become differentiated cells become differentiated What part of a mollusc body is responsible for creating the hard shell? The mantle The foot The metanephridium The radula the mantle The first tetrapods to venture on to land were: a. Arthropods b. Mammals c. Reptiles d. Amphibians amphibians Which group of molluscs contains snails and slugs? a. Gastropoda b. Cephalopoda c. Nematoda d. Bivalvia gastropoda The basic arrangement of limb bones was already established by the time Tiktaalik, or fishapod, was on land. This arrangement can be seen in modern tetrapods. True False true all gastropods are marine. true or false? false Why are amphibians tied to water during their lifetime? a. They do not have amniotic eggs so they must be laid in or around water b. Their skin dries out because they do not have adaptations for dry living c. Part of their lifecycle,the larval stage, is completed in water d.All of these are true all of these are true What allowed reptiles to venture farther away from water than amphibians? a. The amniotic egg b. Scales for waterproofing c. The loss of the metamorphic stage d. All of the above all of the above These molluscs have beak like jaws for predation, have toxins to immobilize their prey, have missing or internalized shells, and have tentacles. a. Cephalopoda b. Gastropoda c. Bivalvia d. Nemotoda cephalopoda These animals have hard calcareous plates as a endoskeleton, have tube feet, are bilateral as larva but develop radial symmetry as adults. a. Arthropods b. Cephalopods c. Echinoderms d. Chelicerates echinoderms Which of the following animals are directly descended from dinosaurs? a. Snakes b. Alligators c.Lizards d. Birds birds Which group of arthropods are known for creating silk, having book lungs, and eight legs? a. Insects b. Myriapods c. Arachnids d. Crustaceans arachnids Amphibians and most reptiles cannot control their body temperature metabolically. They are known as: a. Warm blooded b. Endotherms c. Ectotherms d. Isotherms ectotherms What led to the success of arthropods in both the marine and terrestrial environments? a. A body plan that was easily modified by natural selection b. A body plan that was perfectly adapted to its environment so no changes were needed c. A body plan that remained fixed so no mutations could drive arthropods to extinction d. All of the above a body plan that was easily modified by natural selection Which of the following is NOT a shared characteristic of ALL mammals? a. Deliver live young b. Are endothermic c. Production of milk d. Have hair deliver live young A pillbug (sow bug, roly poly) is what type of arthropod? a. An isopod b.An arachnid c. A decapod d. An insect isopod Which of the following is an example of a monotreme? a. A koala b. A kangaroo c. A platypus d. A whale a platypus How do most insects exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide? a. With book lungs b. With gills c. With lungs d. With tracheal tubes with tracheal tubes Marsupials are found in the greatest numbers on which continent? a. North America b. Asia c. Australia d. Africa Australia Which term best suits an animal that goes through a series of developmental stages in which the larva looks similar to the adult but is smaller. a. Partial metamorphosis b. Incomplete metamorphosis c. Staged metamorphosis d. Complete metamorphosis incomplete metamorphosis Mammals that have hair, make milk, deliver live young that spend the full gestation period internally are called: a. Marsupials b. Eutherians c. Monotremes eutherians What is the closest living primate relative to humans? a. Lemurs b. Gorillas c. Chimpanzees d. Orangutans chimpanzees Which of the following is concerned with the treatment of disease and suffering? Therapeutics Vaccines, hormones, and insulin are examples of: Biologics The goal of the preclinical phase is to determine which drugs are: Not safe The clinical investigation stage of drug development is important for determining each of the following except: improvement of condition During the NDA process, if there is a concern regarding safety or effectiveness data, what will occur? developers are given the opportunity for remediations During the post-marketing phase, focus remains on _____within the general population. adverse events The therapeutic classification of a drug that targets bacteria is called: Antibiotic Mechanism of action refers to how a drug: produces a desired effect Classifying drugs by their potential for abuse is referred to as: Schedule Psychological dependency is characterized by: intense desire Safety categories pertain to: pregnancy The critical factor that removes selection bias from the clinical trial process is_______________. randomization Placing healthier patients into the experimental group because you expect them to tolerate a drug with mild side effects is called: selection bias Clinical trial protocols contain which of the following? length of study inclusion criteria outcomes to be measured assessments to be conducted potential harms During a clinical trial, a placebo is often administered to the: control group Well defined parameters narrow a participant pool to an intentionally designed: study population For one to appropriately power a study, what metric is of concern? sample size Participants are informed of potential harms, benefits, and voluntary status through a process called _______________ . informed consent Participants that are effectively randomized so that bias is removed reflects the ____________ validity of a study. internal When the results of clinical trial are generalizable from the study population to the broader general population, it reflects _____________ validity. external With simple randomization, the risk of imbalance increases if you have: a small sample Blocking ensures an allocation ratio of: 1 to 1 True or False. Stratification is a method used to analyze results according to subgroups. True Open label studies are useful when: comparing new drug to old drug By which of the following are Phase I drug trials characterized? small scale focused on pharmacokinetics follows preclinical trials healthy volunteers determines MTD Phase II drug trials are characterized by which of the following? MED efficacy therapeutic index How do the terms efficacy and effectiveness differ? Efficacy is how a drug performs in controlled laboratory conditions. Effectiveness is how the drug performs (reduces symptomology) in patients with the disease; it's real world conditions. Phase IV differs from Phase III in that Phase IV involves blocking and randomization to assess adverse events. False What three principles characterize the Belmont Report? Beneficence, justice, respect for persons. Coercing or threating a person to continue participating a study they no longer wish to continue enrollment is a violation of: respect for persons Drugs are absorbed in the stomach and transported actively or passively. False True or False. Lipid solubility, molecular size, duration of action, and toxicity are examples of physiological properties that can influence False The blood brain barrier is an example of challenges to drug: distribution Chemical changes made to a drug during metabolism is called _______________. biotransformation True or False. Prodrugs remain inactive until absorption in the small intestine. False (short answer) Why is the hepatic, first pass effect considered a protective adaption? Because things we ingest go to the liver for processing/deactivation before having the opportunity to make it to general circulation and reach the heart or brain. Therefore, poison, microorganisms and toxins can be inactivated to some degree. While the kidneys are the primary organs of drug excretion, elimination in feces can also occur because of: enterohepatic recirculation Fill in the blank. _____________is the amount of time it takes for a drug's initial concentration to be reduced by ½. Half-life A drug that binds to a receptor and facilitates a response has____________action. agonistic What are drugs? Medications that can substantially improve quality of life by reducing suffering and/or completely healing and restoring health What is Pharmacotherapeutics? The branch of science that studies the use of medications to treat or prevent disease. What are biologics? products derived from living organisms What is Therapeutics? The discipline of science that is concerned with the treatment of disease and suffering What is Pharmacology? the study of drugs and their interactions with living systems What are Traditional drug therapies? Synthetic substances manufactured in a laboratory What is Pharmaceutics? The discipline of dispensing drugs by a pharmacist What are the FOUR phases of drug development? (1) preclinical investigation, (2) clinical investigation (four-phase process), (3) formal submission of a New Drug Application (NDA) with review, and (4) post-marketing studies. Drugs can be classified by what TWO broad categorizations? Therapeutic focus and pharmacological classification What is the therapeutic usefulness of an antidysrhythmic? Regulation of heartbeat What is the mechanism of action of diuretics? Decreasing blood volume Which drug schedule has the highest abuse potential? schedule one What is the rationale for drugs that fall into pregnancy safety category D? Use may cause harm to a fetus but it may provide a necessary benefit to the mother What is outlined in a clinical trial protocol? The protocol defines the length of the study, inclusion criteria, outcomes to be measured, and the specific tests and/or procedures to assess outcomes What is a placebo and how is it administered? A placebo is a substance with no therapeutic value. A placebo is administered in the same fashion as the actual drug but will not cause any therapeutic changes. (See section What is informed consent and why is it important to obtain it? Informed consent is a general term that refers to a process through which a participant is informed of the potential risks and benefits of participating in the study. It is also important that the participant does not feel coerced or confined to participate in the study; enrollment is continually voluntary, and a participant may choose to leave the study if they are uncomfortable. What are the THREE types of randomization schemes that can be utilized in a clinical trial? (1) simple randomization, (2) restricted randomization, and (3) stratification randomization Phase II of a clinical trial is concerned with which of the following? Efficacy What is the first pass effect and why must it be considered by providers? The first pass effect refers to the initial metabolism of drugs. After a drug has been taken orally, it is absorbed through the small capillaries of the small intestinal wall and into the capillaries and blood vessels of the hepatic portal circulation. The first pass effect is an important consideration for drug dosing; drug developers need to ensure that the drug will still be effective after making the initial pass through the liver. Additionally, if a patient has liver disease, dosing of a drug may need to be decreased to prevent toxicity from a drug that cannot be metabolized. What is absorption? Absorption is the process of a drug moving from its site of administration to the target area, crossing one or more body membranes and reaching the target destination What is distribution? Distribution is the process of transporting drugs through the bloodstream after absorption in the small intestine has occurred. A drug may be readily absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, but challenges may be encountered during the distribution process. For example, proteins in the blood plasma, such as albumin, may bind to a drug and prevent it from reaching its target tissue. What is the blood brain barrier? The blood-brain barrier (BBB), as an example, is a semipermeable, highly selective border comprised of blood vessels and glial cells. These vessels act as a tight, mesh-like layer that strictly regulates the passage of molecules and ions into the circulation of the brain and the cerebrospinal fluid What is bioavailability? Bioavailabilityrefers to the amount of drug that is available after administration to produce the intended biological effect. Bioavailability is usually determined in Phase II of a clinical trial. What is metabolism? Metabolism is the sum of the body’s chemical reactions. Multiple metabolic processes are occurring in every cell within the body at any given time. What is the main site of drug metabolism? The main sites of drug metabolism is the liver. The liver changes the chemical composition of drugs from one form to another through a process called biotransformation. What are pro-drugs and how do they work? In some cases, biochemical alterations are the driving mechanisms that activate a drug rather than deactivate the drug. These drugs are called prodrugs, and they are structured as the inactive analog of active forms of the drug. What is the first pass effect? The first pass effect refers to the initial metabolism of drugs. After a drug has been taken orally, it is absorbed through the small capillaries of the small intestinal wall and into the capillaries and blood vessels of the hepatic portal circulation (Figure 5.2). Blood vessels take the blood, which is saturated with the drug, to the hepatic portal vein and into the liver. Metabolic processes in the liver may deactivate the drug to a less potent form before the blood is transported to the inferior vena cava of the heart. After reaching the inferior vena cava, the blood is sent to the lungs for oxygenation and then distributed to all body tissues via general circulation. The first pass effect is an important consideration for drug dosing; drug developers need to ensure that the drug will still be effective after making the initial pass through the liver. Additionally, if a patient has liver disease, dosing of a drug may need to be decreased to prevent toxicity from a drug that cannot be metabolized. This modified digestive circulation is an adaption that prevents harmful substances from immediately entering general circulation; they will first be processed and modified within the liver. What is excretion? Excretion is the process of removing substances from the body via urination, defecation, exhalation, or sweating. Note: urination and defecation are the most common modes of excretion; thus, only these two modes will be discussed here What is the main organ involved in excretion? The main organs of drug excretion are the kidneys, which eliminate the drug with the passing of urine. The kidneys are responsible for maintaining ion balance, blood pressure, and removal of drug metabolites that are present in the blood What is enterohepatic recirculation? Enterohepatic recirculationoccurs as drugs (or drug metabolites) are contained within the bile, which is produced by the liver. Bile containing the drug is excreted into the small intestine. Some of the bile is then reabsorbed through small capillaries of the small intestine and recirculated back into the liver. A fraction, however, will not be absorbed but will instead be shunted to the large intestine, where it will be excreted in feces Agonists and antagonist To be effective, a drug must cause a change within the cells of the target tissue. This is accomplished as a drug binds to a receptor of a cell to initiate or prevent signal transduction. Drugs may exert actions at specific cells or may be active at a neurological synapse. Furthermore, a drug is a ligand and may act as an agonist, in which it binds to a receptor and facilitates a cellular response. Conversely, a drug may act as an antagonist, in which its binding inhibits a response or blocks an agonist molecule from binding What does off label mean? Off-label is a term that refers to a drug being prescribed for a condition the drug was not designed to treat, but data indicate the drug produces a benefit for the other conditions. What is selection bias? Selection bias occurs if participants are distributed into groups based on some kind of association. What is the protocol? The protocol defines the length of the study, inclusion criteria, outcomes to be measured, and the specific tests and/or procedures to assess outcomes. What is internal and external validity? Internal validity refers to the adequate randomization of participants so that biases are removed and accurate cause-and-effect relationships can be evaluated. External validity ensures that the study results are generalizable from the study population to the broader general population What is simple randomization? Simple randomization approaches assignment into the treatment or control group as completely independent events for each participant. In other words, it is as simple as flipping a coin, and each new flip is not dependent on the previous flips. What is restricted randomization and blocking? Restricted randomization is like simple randomization in that each assignment is independent of the previous assignment. However, restricted randomization has safeguards built into the scheme to prevent potential imbalances among groups. Blocking is a safeguard that allows participants to be allocated to the treatment or experimental group in equal numbers based on possible outcomes. What is stratification randomization? Stratification randomization is like restricted randomization, only subgroups, defined prior to beginning the trial, are added for analyses. A subgroup is an additional method used to classify participants such as by clinic, gender, or risk level. Stratification can complicate data collection, so the number of variables is limited to only one or two specific strata. What are pharmokinetics? Pharmacokinetics is the branch of pharmacology that is concerned with the movement of drugs through the body. What is the main point of phase one? A major objective of Phase I is to begin to assess a safety profile by determining the maximum tolerated dose ( MTD). Essentially, doses are administered in increasing amounts until the dose that produces the most reasonable range of side effects is discovered. What is the main point of phase 2? Phase II of a clinical trial is concerned with efficacy. Efficacy is the ability of a drug to produce the desired outcome. Efficacy is determined using statistical analyses that compare some measurable change between the control and experimental groups. What is the main point of phase 3? The objective of this phase is to establish effectiveness, that is, clinically significant effects gleaned from established dosing in patients with the condition the drug is intended to treat. Note: it is helpful to think of efficacy as a drug’s performance in laboratory conditions and effectiveness as a drug’s performance in real-world conditions What is the main point of phase 4? This last phase is not randomized or blocked; the goal of this phase is to collect information regarding adverse events, interactions, or teratogenic (fetal/embryonic) effects that only become apparent as the drug is prescribed and consumed on a global scale. What is pharmacology? Pharmacology is the study of how drugs can improve human health. What are drugs? Drugs, or medications, can substantially improve quality of life by reducing suffering and/or completely healing and restoring health. What is pharmaceutics? pharmaceutics is the science of pharmacy, that is, the discipline of dispensing drugs by a pharmacist. What is pharmacotherapeutics? pharmacotherapeutics is the branch of science that studies the use of medications to treat or prevent disease. What is Therapeutics? Therapeutics is the discipline of science that is concerned with the treatment of disease and suffering, What is traditional drug therapy? Traditional drug therapies are synthetic substances manufactured in a laboratory. What are natural alternative therapies? Natural alternative therapies are naturally grown and harvested and may include vitamins, herbs, and various dietary supplements. What is the pre-clinical phase? The preclinical phase involves exhaustive laboratory work that lasts in the range of 1-3 years (average time is 18 months). During this time, cells are grown in culture, and the candidate drug is tested to look for potential harms. What is the clinical investigation phase? The clinical investigation phase takes 2-10 years to complete, with the average time being approximately 5 years. During this phase, pharmacologists and medical practitioners work together to gather data from large groups of volunteers. What is the NDA phase? The New Drug Approval ( NDA) submission is a formal review process conducted by a specialized branch of the FDA. Submission and approval can take anywhere from 2 months – 7 years, with an average timeframe of approximately 2 years. What is the post marketing phase? Finally, the post-marketing phase begins after the completion of clinical trials and an NDA. The post-marketing phase covers expansive groups of people with diverse medical backgrounds. Often, adverse effects may not appear until larger numbers of people begin taking a drug; clinical trial volunteers are often not a perfect representation of the entire population. What is therapeutic classiifcation ? Therapeutic classification (Table 5.1) simply refers to how a drug affects a particular body system. For example, a drug that interferes with the blood clotting cascade is known as an anticoagulants; those that reduce swelling are anti-inflammatories, and a drug that lowers blood pressure is an antihypertensive. What is therapeutic usefulness? Therapeutic usefulness refers to a particular condition or ailment that a drug is intended to treat. Schedule one drugs: Heroin, Marijuana, LSD Schedule two drugs: Methamphetamine, Morphine Schedule three drugs: Anabolic Steroids, Hydrocodone Schedule four drugs: Valium, Xanax, Tranquilizers Schedule five drugs: Over-the-counter (OTC) What is the difference between physical and psychological dependency? Dependency is a psychological (mental) and/or physiological (physical) need for a substance. In the case of physical dependency, a patient will exhibit tangible withdrawal signs that may be painful and unpleasant. Conversely, psychological dependence is characterized by an intense desire to continue to use a drug without the presence of unpleasant physical withdrawal symptoms. Safety categories for fetus/pregnant women: Safety CategoryRationaleExamples A:Human studies have not shown a risk to mother or fetus Synthroid, K-Lor, Ferrous fumarate B:Animal studies have not shown a risk or if they have shown a risk to animals, human studies have not validated riskAmoxicillin, Insulin, Prozac C:Animal studies have shown risk, but there is little or known data for human studiesSenokot, Lasix, Elavil D:Use may cause harm to a fetus but it may provide a necessary benefit to the motherCortistan, Coumadin, Adderall, Methadone X:Studies suggest significant risk to woman and/or fetusNorethindrone, Ortho-Novum, Oxymetholone Schedule two drugs: Methamphetamine, Morphine