BIOD102/ BIOD102 Final Exam – Essential Biology II (Portage Learning) 2026/2027 | Verified Q&A | 100% Correct Answers | Grade A+

BIOD102/ BIOD102 Final Exam – Essential Biology II (Portage Learning) 2026/2027 | Verified Q&A | 100% Correct Answers | Grade A+ Q: In which of the following animals are the blood and the interstitial fluid considered to be the same body fluid? Answer grasshoppers Q: Blood returns to the heart via the _____. Answer pulmonary veins Q: From the pulmonary veins, blood flows to the _____. Answer left atrium Q: From the superior vena cava, blood flows to the _____. Answer right atrium Q: From the capillaries of the abdominal organs and hind limbs, blood flows to the _____. Answer inferior vena cava Q: What is the function of a circulatory system? Answer It brings a transport liquid into close contact with all cells in the body. Q: Why do the circulatory systems of land vertebrates have separate circuits to the lungs and to the rest of the body? Answer The large decrease in blood pressure as blood moves through the lungs may prevent efficient circulation through the rest of the body. Q: True or false? The circulatory systems of land-dwelling vertebrates are composed of two pumping circuits: the systemic circulation, which is a lower-pressure circuit to the lung, and the pulmonary circulation, which is a higher-pressure circuit to the rest of the body. Answer False Q: What is the function of the left ventricle? Answer It pumps oxygenated blood around the body via the systemic circulation. Q: Which of the following statements about blood circulation in the body is true? Answer Valves prevent the back flow of blood into the atria and ventricles. Q: Which event occurs first during atrial and ventricular diastole? Answer The atria and ventricles are relaxed, and blood flows into the atria. Q: Which event of the cardiac cycle occurs when systolic blood pressure is measured? Answer The ventricles contract, carrying blood into the aorta, and blood flows into the relaxed atria. Q: Which letter indicates systolic pressure? Answer a ( at the peak of changes in blood pressure) Q: Which letter indicates diastolic pressure? Answer b (Where there is a dip in the changes in blood pressure) Q: Which letter indicates the arteries? d (Aorta-arteries- arterioles) (When blood enters the arteries from the aorta, both pressure and velocity begin to fall. As blood leaves the arteries and flows through the arterioles, both pressure and velocity drop rapidly.) Q: Which letter indicates the venules? Answer g (From heartAorta- arteries- arterioles- capillaries- venuels- vein-Venae Cavaeto heart) Q: Which letter indicates the vessels in which blood pressure is the lowest? Answer i (the end and where it stays constant) Q: Which letter indicates the vessels in which blood velocity is decreasing the most due to an increase in the total combined cross-sectional area of those vessels? Answer e (where the slope is decreasing) Q: Which letter indicates the vessels in which blood travels the most slowly? Answer f (middle of graph and velocity is constant 0) Q: Which letter indicates the vessels in which blood velocity is increasing the most due to a decrease in the total combined cross-sectional area of those vessels? Answer h (biggest increasing slope) Q: Stroke occurs when _____. Answer a blood clot enters the cerebral circulation, blocking an artery and causing the death of brain tissue Q: Voice sounds are produced by the _____. Answer larynx Q: The primary functions of the _____ are to warm, filter, and humidify air. Answer nasal cavity Q: Which statement about the gas exchange system in fish is correct? Answer It enables oxygen to diffuse from the water into the blood over the entire length of the gill capillaries. Q: Which statement about oxygen in fish gills is correct? Answer The partial pressure of oxygen in blood increases as it flows through gill capillaries. Q: The partial pressure of oxygen at a particular point in the bloodstream is 100 mm Hg. Under what circumstance will there be a net diffusion of oxygen from the water into the bloodstream at this location? Answer There will be a net diffusion of oxygen from the water into the bloodstream only if the partial pressure of oxygen in the water is greater than 100 mm Hg. Q: _______ in carbon dioxide in your red blood cells, which causes _____ in pH, causes your breathing to speed up. Answer An increase ... a drop Q: Inhalation and exhalation move air into and out of the lungs. What happens when you inhale and exhale? INHALATION Answer 1. Diaphragm and rib muscles contract 2. Lung volume increases 3. Air moves into nose and down trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles 4. Air enters alveoli 5. O2 diffuses into blood and CO2 diffuses into alveoli EXHALATION 6. Diaphragm and rub muscles relax 7. Lung volume decreases 8. Air moves out of alveoli 9. Air moves up bronchioles, bronchi and trachea 10. Air leaves nose/mouth Q: Gas exchange involves the transport of two respiratory gases, oxygen and carbon dioxide. Review how each gas is transported between the atmosphere and the cells of your body by completing this exercise. Answer OXYGEN ONLY - required for cellular respiration - net diffusion from alveoli to lung capillaries CARBON DIOXIDE ONLY BOTH OXYGEN AND CARBON DIOXIDE - enters alveoli during inhalation - transported by hemoglobin Q: You just received a freshwater aquarium as a gift and decide to add more fish. When you get to the pet store, you find that the most beautiful fish are saltwater animals, but you decide to buy them anyway. What will happen when you put your expensive saltwater fish in your freshwater aquarium? Answer The cells of the fish will take up too much water, and the fish will die. Q: Terrestrial animals are _____. Answer osmoregulators that must obtain water from the environment Q: Birds, insects, and many reptiles excrete nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid, which _____. Answer reduces water loss compared to other nitrogenous wastes, but requires more metabolic energy to produce Q: Freshwater fish excrete nitrogenous wastes as _____. Answer ammonia Q: The urethra is identified by the letter _____. Answer E (bottom of excretory system). The urethra transports urine from the urinary bladder to the world outside the body. Q: Urine formed by a kidney collects in the _____ before being drained from the kidney by the _____ and transported to the _____. Answer renal pelvis ... ureter ...urinary bladder Q: Filtrate is formed as fluid is forced through the walls of the glomerulus and, initially, collects in the structure indicated by the letter Answer B (wrapped around what looks like a glob of circles on the left) Fluid from the glomerulus first collects in Bowman's capsule. Q: The _____ are the major blood vessels transporting blood to the kidneys. Answer renal arteries Q: Q: The outer part of the kidney is the _____. Answer cortex Which of these is the functional unit of a kidney? Answer nephron Which of the following is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule, leading to a reduction in the overall filtrate volume? Answer solutes and water Which of the following characteristics describes the thin segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle? Answer impermeable to H2O, permeable to NaCl In which section of the nephron does the filtrate have a higher osmolarity than the blood when it enters and lower osmolarity than the blood when it leaves? Answer ascending limb of the loop of Henle Which of the following contributes most significantly to the kidney's high energy expenditure? Answer transport of NaCl in the thick segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle T/F: Regulated changes in the epithelium of the loop of Henle allow the kidney to operate in water-conservation mode. Answer FALSE T/F: The collecting duct concentrates urine by actively reabsorbing NaCl Answer FALSE T/F: The collecting duct becomes more permeable to water when the kidneys are in water conservation mode. Answer TRUE T/F: Reabsorption of water and solutes in the proximal tubule reduces the volume of the filtrate. Answer TRUE Both passive and active transport are used to move molecules into and out of cells, as shown in the figure. Identify the key differences between passive and active transport, and provide an example of each. Answer PASSIVE how molecules move relative to a concentration gradient: down energy requirements: none example: osmosis Both passive and active transport are used to move molecules into and out of cells, as shown in the figure. Identify the key differences between passive and active transport, and provide an example of each. ACTIVE how molecules move relative to a concentration gradient: against energy req: requires energy example: sodium potassium pump The kidney's ability to concentrate urine depends on the maintenance of an osmolarity gradient between the interstitial fluid of two structures: the cortex and the _______ medulla This osmolarity gradient is maintained by both the passive transport and the active transport of ______ NaCl The osmolarity gradient is also maintained by the passive transport of ______ urea Water responds to the osmolarity gradient by moving from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration--a process called _______ osmosis Osmosis does not require energy. For this reason, osmosis is a form of ___________ passive transport The loss of water from the ________ results in urine that is highly concentrated. filtrate descending limb of the loop of Henle - numerous aquaporins (water channels) but almost no ion channels - no energy required for transport - epithelium always permeable to water ascending limb of the loop of Henle - no aquaporins (water channels) - passive transport of NaCl in the thin segment and active transport of NaCl in the thick segment collecting duct - hormones control permeability to water and transport of NaCl - active transport of NaCl associated with loss of water from filtrate What stimuli increase water reabsorption in the kidneys - ADH secretion - sweating - dehydration due to inadequate water intake - eating salty food What stimuli increase water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys - blood loss - severe diarrhea - aldosterone release What stimuli does not increase water ot sodium reabsorption in the kidneys - diabetes insipidus - caffeine consumption - alcohol consumption Which statement regarding the June solstice is true? The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the sun. At what time of year is the intensity of solar radiation striking each of Earth's hemispheres weakest? The intensity of solar radiation is weakest in the Southern Hemisphere in June and in the Northern Hemisphere in December. Which statement accurately describes Earth on February 21, a date that falls between the December solstice and the March equinox? Locations in the Southern Hemisphere experience more than 12 hours of daylight. Which of the following causes Earth's seasons? Earth's tilt on its axis (Earth's tilt toward or away from the sun allows for direct and indirect solar collection, respectively. When the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the sun, it is summer because of the increased duration and intensity of insolation) Which of the following investigations is an example of the study of an abiotic factor? investigating how the amount of annual precipitation affects the distribution of a tree species Which action influences the abiotic components of an organism's environment? Water pollution. Which aspects of a region's climate have the most impact on plants and animals? Temperature and moisture. True or false? Weather is defined as the prevailing long-term atmospheric conditions in a particular region. False Which of the following statements about Hadley cells is true? As warm air rises, air at the top of the atmosphere is pushed poleward and cools. Which location on Earth receives the most solar radiation per unit area? Equator What are rain shadows? Dry regions on the leeward side of mountain ranges. Which desert is caused by a Hadley cell? Sahara Desert in Africa What are the two major factors determining the distribution of terrestrial biomes? temperature and rainfall Which of these biomes is characterized by little rainfall? desert Which of these is the largest terrestrial biome on Earth? coniferous forest Which biome is characterized by an extensive canopy that allows little light to penetrate to the ground and by the presence of epiphytes? tropical rain forest Which biome is characterized by the presence of permafrost? tundra In most cases, the two major climatic factors affecting the distribution of organisms in terrestrial ecosystems are _____. water and temperature What is a biome? a major type of ecosystem Which of these is characteristic of the photic zone of a freshwater biome? the presence of algae The benthic zone of aquatic environments is defined as the _____. substrate at the bottom of the body of water The _____ biome is the largest of Earth's biomes. marine A(n) _____ is a region where fresh water and salt water mix. estuary Aquatic biomes can be distinguished by chemical characteristics such as dissolved oxygen content and salinity and by physical characteristics such as water flow. What is true about aquatic biomes? Wetlands have slow water movement or no water movement and no turnover. Temperature drives water movement in some lakes. Tropical coral reefs generally exist in relatively shallow areas of the ocean. A freshwater organism permanently attached to the substrate would be unlikely to survive and reproduce in an estuary. Estuaries are very productive and are used as breeding grounds by many species of fish. What are the most abundant animals found in the pelagic zone? zooplankton life: bio- true, good: eu- house, household: eco- study of: -logy across: trans- plant: -phyte water: aqu- (or aqua-) small: micro- without, lack of, not: a- (or an-) large: macro- first: prim- flesh: carn- animal: zoo- (or zoa-) grass: herb- water:hydro- all: omni- under, below: sub- eat: -vor few: oligo- from, out of, remove: de- food, nourishment: troph killer: -cide other: hetero- beyond: ultra- within: intra- between: inter- self: auto- heat: therm- alongside: para- light: photo- just memorize all of those, maybe another quizlet idk Why are experiments that involve transplanting species seldom conducted today? The transplanted species are often disruptive to their new communities. Which would be a consequence of the removal of predators from a population such as the Trinidadian guppy population? Guppy color patterns would change; guppies would produce fewer but larger offspring; the nitrogen excretion rate would increase and the rate of growth of primary producers such as algae would increase. Ecologists cannot count all the individuals in a population if the organisms move too quickly or are hidden from view. In such cases, researchers often use the mark-recapture method to estimate population size. Andrew Gormley and his colleagues at the University of Otago applied this method to a population of endangered Hector's dolphins (Cephalorhynchus hectori) near Banks Peninsula, in New Zealand. Scientists typically begin by capturing a random sample of individuals in a population. They tag, or "mark," each individual and then release it. With some species, researchers can identify individuals without physically capturing them. For example, Gormley and colleagues identified 180 Hector's dolphins by photographing their distinctive dorsal fins from boats. After waiting for the marked or otherwise identified individuals to mix back into the population, usually a few days or weeks, scientists capture or sample a second set of individuals. At Banks Peninsula, Gormley's team encountered 44 dolphins in their second sampling, 7 of which they had photographed before. The number of marked animals captured in the second sampling (x) divided by the total number of animals captured in the second sampling (n) should equal the number of individuals marked and released in the first sampling (s) divided by the estimated population size (N): xn=sN or, solving for population size, N=snx The method assumes that marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being captured or sampled, that the marked organisms have mixed completely back into the population, and that no individuals are born, die, immigrate, or emigrate during the resampling interval. Based on these initial data, the estimated population size of Hector's dolphins at Banks Peninsula would be 180×447=1,131 individuals. Repeated sampling by Gormley and colleagues suggested a true population size closer to 1,100. Suppose that none of the 44 dolphins encountered in the second sampling had been photographed before. Would you be able to solve the equation for N? What might you conclude about population size in this case? The equation cannot be solved, but you would conclude that the population size is very large. To determine the density of a rabbit population, you would need to know the number of rabbits and _____. the size of the area in which they live In wild populations, individuals most often show a _____ pattern of dispersion. clumped In the models that describe population growth, r stands for _____. per capita population growth rate For a hypothetical mouse population, determine whether the actions described will increase K, decrease K, or not affect K. K INCREASES - a main competitor for food is eliminated, increasing food availability - an abandoned building creates more nesting areas For a hypothetical mouse population, determine whether the actions described will increase K, decrease K, or not affect K. K DECREASES - a species with the same food requirements is introduced - a parking lot is built, shrinking the habitat - wetlands are drained, decreasing the amount of available water For a hypothetical mouse population, determine whether the actions described will increase K, decrease K, or not affect K. NO EFFECT ON K offspring live longer The number of individuals that a particular habitat can support with no degradation of that habitat is called _____. carrying capacity Which of the following conditions favors "big-bang" reproduction? low rates of offspring survival Which of the following is regarded as a density-independent factor in the growth of natural populations? flooding When the finches first colonized Santa Maria and San Cristobal, G. fuliginosa probably had beak sizes similar to finches on ___________ island, and G. fortis probably had beak sizes similar to finches on _________ island. Los Hermanos... Daphne Significant overlap in beak size would have resulted in ________ for food. interspecific competition Natural selection favored phenotypes that competed _____ for food. less In G. fortis, finches with ________ were selected for. deeper beaks In G. fuliginosa, finches with ____________ were selected for. shallower beaks Each species experienced ________ selection, which resulted in character displacement for beak size. directional Character displacement is adaptive for both populations because it ______ interspecific competition. reduces According to the principle of competitive exclusion, two species cannot continue to occupy the same _____. ecological niche The term used to describe a harmless organism resembling a harmful one is _____. batesian mimicry Cellulose-digesting microorganisms live in the guts of termites and ruminant mammals. The microorganisms have a home and food, and their hosts gain more nutrition from their meals. This relationship is an example of _____. mutalism Roosting areas in buildings of any height are the ________ of species 1. fundamental niche __________ between the two bat species occurs because both species prefer the same roosting areas. Interspecific competition In parts of the city with only tall buildings (over two stories), __________ of species 1 may occur. competitive exclusion Roosting areas in buildings that are one to two stories tall are the _______________ of species 1 when species 2 is present. realized niche The change in the roosting habits of species 1 after species 2 became established in the city is an example of ____________ resource partitioning The competition between the species for roosting areas is an example of a ______ interaction -/- The changes in the eyes of species 1 are examples of ____________ character displacement. An organism's "trophic level" refers to _____. its food source Keystone species are those species _____. whose absence would cause major disruption in a community In most ecological communities, plants are the first level of the trophic structure, known as producers. What do plants produce that supports the higher trophic levels of the community? energy-containing food molecules Which of the following best illustrates ecological succession? Grass grows on a sand dune, is replaced by shrubs, and then by trees According to MacArthur and Wilson's hypothesis of island biogeography, species immigration and extinction rates on a particular island correlate to __________. the island's size and distance from the mainland Caribbean coral reef communities have been strongly influenced by an unknown pathogen that causes white-band disease. How can the effect of white-band disease best be described? a cascade event that shifts the entire makeup of the community On a global scale, energy _____ ecosystems whereas chemical elements _____ ecosystems flows through ... are recycled in Consider this segment of a food web: Snails and grasshoppers eat pepper plants; spiders eat grasshoppers; shrews eat snails and spiders; owls eat shrews. The shrew occupies the trophic level(s) of _____. secondary and tertiary consumers The producers in aquatic ecosystems include organisms in which of the following groups? cyanobacteria, algae, plantis, photoautotrophs The relationship between biomass and primary productivity is that _____. primary productivity is the rate at which biomass is produced Which of the following statements about energy flow are true? -Animals that produce their own body heat and maintain a high body temperature are likely to be less efficient at converting food into biomass than are animals that do not regulate their body temperature. -Energy used in the production of offspring is available to higher trophic levels. -If the lowest trophic level of an ecosystem--the primary producers--contains 1,200 grams of biomass per square meter, it is reasonable to expect the secondary consumer level to contain about 12 grams of biomass per square meter. -In a trophic pyramid, biomass represents chemical energy. _____ are secondary consumers. carnivores Approximately _____% of the energy at one trophic level is passed on to the next highest trophic level. 5-10 10,000 kcal of producer could support approximately _____ kcal of tertiary consumer. 10 Which of these provides your body with energy? fats Plants use _____ as a source of energy. light What element is found in all organic compounds? Carbon Where do plants get the carbon they use to make organic molecules? carbon dioxide Where do plants get the energy to make organic molecules? light Which of these is NOT an organic molecule? minerals Nitrifying bacteria convert _____ to _____. ammonium ... nitrites _____ removes nitrogen from the atmosphere. nitrogen fixation Denitrifying bacteria convert _____ to _____. nitrates ... nitrogen gas In a biogeochemical cycle, a chemical element spends time in different places, called reservoirs As a chemical element moves through a biogeochemical cycle, it moves between "bio" and "geo." The "bio" in biogeochemical refers to biotic reservoirs, or living organisms The "geo" in biogeochemical refers to ______ --specifically, to the abiotic reservoirs where a chemical element can be found. earth In the terrestrial carbon cycle, the abiotic reservoir from which living organisms directly obtain their carbon is ___________ the atmosphere Carbon moves from an abiotic reservoir to living organisms during the process of ___________ photosynthesis Carbon moves from living organisms to an abiotic reservoir during the process of ________________ cellular respiration An ecosystem is unlikely to be limited by the supply of _____ because it is obtained from the air. carbon In contrast to bioremediation, which is a strategy for _____, biological augmentation _____ a degraded ecosystem removing harmful substances...uses organisms to add essential materials to From 1930 to 1939 fire ants spread inland about 60 miles from their point of introduction in Mobile, Alabama. What was the cause of their spread over this distance? a natural spread From 1940 to 1970 fire ants spread through many southern states, sometimes at a rate of 100 miles in a year. What was the cause of their spread over this distance? being transported along with plants and soil In 1958 federal law restricted the movement of soil and plants from areas where fire ants were established. Why was this law unsuccessful in stopping the spread of fire ant colonies? People were unaware of the federal law and, when they moved, transported plants bearing fire ant colonies; a single mated queen can be transported without being noticed; and many states thought to be free of fire ant colonies already had them. Techniques used, or are being considered for use, in controlling the spread of fire ants include _____. setting baits that kill the queen when they are carried back to the nest, applying chemical powders that kill the colony, introducing a protist to infect the fire ant queen and her eggs, and introducing a fly that lays eggs in fire ants so that the eggs will hatch into larvae that eat their way into the ants' heads, which will then fall off Which of the following organisms was/were introduced by humans into the United States or its territories? kudzu, European starling, brown tree snake, zebra mussels The single greatest current threat to biodiversity is _____. habitat destruction The estimated density or number of individuals needed for a species to maintain or increase its numbers in a region is the _____. minimum viable population (MVP) The number of habitat types __________ when ecosystem diversity increases increases Low genetic diversity within a species _____________ the likelihood that the species may go instinct increases A human activity such as draining a wetland _______________ ecosystem diversity decreases extinction ____________ species diversity decreases High genetic diversity within a species ____________ the likelihood that the species can adapt to new environmental conditions increases threats to biodiversity: habitat loss and fragmentation -Florida panthers were geographically cut off from other panthers about 100 years ago. -Some fishing nets damage the seafloor. -A wetland is drained to make room for a housing development. -Small rainforest remnants have less diversity than larger rainforest remnants. threats to biodiversity: exotic species -Melaleuca trees from Australia displace native wetland vegetation in Florida. -South American rodents called nutria eat wetland plants and cause bank erosion in the United States. threats to biodiversity: overexploitation -Cod are caught faster than they can reproduce -Wild American ginseng populations have declined as a result of increased demand for the roots. True or false? Biologists studied the effects of forest fragmentation by calculating the difference between the amount of plant biomass in the edges of forest fragments and the interiors of unfragmented forest. true Which size forest fragment would be most affected by habitat fragmentation over a given period of time? 1 hectare Which of the following statements about the effects of forest fragmentation on plant biomass and species diversity is true? The loss of plant biomass has a domino effect on other species that live in the forest fragment Hot spots are usually chosen for nature preserves because they _____. save habitat for threatened and endangered species Which of these would NOT contribute to a global increase in temperature? planting trees Switching from fossil fuels to _____ energy would significantly decrease the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. solar, nuclear, and geothermal Which of these are the two major sources of nitrate pollution in rivers? animal wastes and fertilizers Aquatic nitrate pollution can result in _____. an algal bloom that, when the algae die and are decomposed by bacteria, leads to hypoxia and the death of fish Which of the following statements best describes why ecologists are currently concerned with global warming and the thawing of permafrost in many areas of the tundra biome? The bacterial decomposition of thawed organic materials over the widespread areas of the tundra will produce large quantities of CO2, which will add to greenhouse gases and exacerbate global warming. The effort to develop, manage, and conserve Earth's resources to meet the needs of people today without limiting the ability of future generations to meet their needs is called _____. sustainable development