BIOD102/ BIOD102 Final Exam V2 – Essential Biology II (Portage Learning) 2026/2027 | 600+ Verified Q&A | 100% Correct Answers | Grade A+

BIOD102/ BIOD102 Final Exam V2 – Essential Biology II (Portage Learning) 2026/2027 | 600+ Verified Q&A | 100% Correct Answers | Grade A+ Q: Which sequence immediately stops transcription Answer Polyadenylation Sequence Q: Excitatory neurotransmitters ____ the electrical threshold by increasing electrical excitability of ____ cells, allowing action potentials to be propagated more quickly. Answer Decrease, post-synaptic Q: What are the two main ways neurotransmitters are cleared from the synapse? Answer Inactivating enzymes and reuptake via neurotransmitter transport channels. Q: Chemoreceptors Answer Restore homeostasis through negative feedback, but they do not communicate with the hypothalamus as they are reflexive. Q: Post-Marketing Phase Answer Phase of drug development process covers expansive groups of people with diverse medical backgrounds as adverse effects may not appear until larger numbers of people begin taking a drug. Q: Preclinical Phase Answer Exhaustive laboratory work, 1-3 years long. Cells are grown in culture and the candidate drug is tested to look for potential harms. Animal testing would occur now. Q: Clinical Investigation Phase Answer 2-10 years long. Pharmacologists gather data , important in identifying adverse SE and possibility that developing drug may worsen other conditions. Clinical trials occur during this phase. Q: New Drug Approval Phase Answer Formal review process conducted by a specialized branch of the FDA. 2 months - 7 years. Clinical data is examined. If the drug has reasonable benefit it can continue to post marketing studies. Q: Epidemiological Triad Answer Focuses on interactions among host, agent, and environment. Q: Initiation stage of translation Answer Involves binding of the small ribosomal skin it with mature mRNA Q: Termination Phase of Translation Answer Broken down into 3 steps - binding of a releasing factor, liberation of the completed polypeptide chain, and disassembly of the translation initiation complex. Q: Elongation Phase of Translation Answer Moves 5' to 3' Q: Endocrine Glands Answer Ductless structures that secrete hormones directly into the surrounding extracellular fluid or bloodstream Q: Which type of muscle is under voluntary control? Answer Skeletal Q: Response Answer The physiological adjustment that a system makes to return a Callie to its set point range. Q: Sensor Answer The anatomical or physiological machinery thta detects the stimulus. Q: Stimulus Answer A fluctuation above or below normal set point ranges Q: Set point Answer A range of acceptable values that is determined by genetics Q: Schedule I Drug Answer Highest abuse potential. Heroin, marijuana. Q: Schedule II Drug Answer High abuse potential. Methamphetamine, morphine. Q: Schedule III Drug Answer Moderate abuse potential. Anabolic steroids, hydrocodone. Q: Schedule IV Drug Answer Low abuse potential. Valium, Xanax. Q: Schedule V Drug Answer Lowest abuse potential. OTC. Q: What is the goal of public health? Answer Identify risk factors and intervene to reduce morbidity and mortality within a population. Q: Regulation of pH in the small intestine is run by what type of feedback mechanism? Answer Negative Feedback Q: Cardiac Output Answer HR x SV Q: Describe heat- generating mechanism used by the body when a drop in body temperature is detected. Answer When core temperature drops, skeletal muscles are stimulated to move to produce the friction and heat through shivering. Shivering is a mechanism that produces and conserves heat. Q: Category A Answer Human studies have not shown a risk to mother or fetus Q: Category B Answer Animal studies have not shown a risk or if they have shown a risk to animals, himan studies have not validated risk. Q: Category C Answer Animal studies have shown risk but there is little or no known data for human studies Q: Category D Answer Use may cause harm to a fetus but it may provide a necessary benefit to the mother. Q: Category X Answer Studies suggest significant risk to woman and/or fetus ____ is the number of new cases that occur in a specific time period among a population that is at risk for developing the condition or illness. ____ is defined as the number of persons, present within a defined population at a specific time ,who have a particular condition. Answer Incidence, prevalence Which enzyme cuts DNA? Answer Nuclease Compare and contrast negative and positive feedback loops. Answer Negative feedback is a regulatory mechanism that results in a decrease in function. In contrast to negative feedback, in a positive feedback loop, the final response produced by the target cell reinforces and increases the functional output of the initial stimulus. Acetylcholine Answer The function of ACh at the synapses of cardiac cells is completely different than its mode of action at the neuromuscular junction. Within cardiac muscle, ACh has an inhibitory effect and does not bind to ligand gated receptors of the cardiac cells. Which hormone produces the sensation of hunger? How does it work to produce the feeling? Answer Grehlin is a hormone secreted by the cells of the stomach that stimulates the neurons of the hypothalamus to stimulate feelings of hunger. Which phase of the clinical trial is not randomized or blocked? Answer Phase IV Cohort Studies Answer Investigate multiple outcomes in relation to a single exposure Cross-sectional studies Answer Sometimes called prevalence studies Case - series Answer Includes only a small group of patients with a similar diagnosis. Case-control Answer Examine multiple exposures in relation to a single disease What enzymes add nucleotides to the 3' end of an existing DNA chain via dehydration reactions? Answer DNA Polymerase What are involved in initiating the process of DNA transcription? Answer Transcription factors, Helicase, RNA polymerase, Promoter region How can an incorrect reading frame be detrimental? Answer An incorrect reading from can be detrimental because the intended amino acid code will not be read appropriately, and a different amino acid may end up in the sequence What are telomeres? Answer Specialized nucleotide sequences that serve as a protective tail on the ends of strands. The ribosomal subunits are synthesized in the ____ of eukaryotic cells and are exported to the ____. Answer Nucleolus, cytoplasm DNA strands have directionality and are ____; the 5' end of the first strand aligns with the ___ end of the second strand. Answer Antiparallel, 3' What drives the functionality of tRNA? The orientation of the strands relative to the anticodon region (structure) drives the functionality if the tRNA. Describe the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. Nucleases will cleave out a short stretch of DNA on the new strand and the template strand will again be used to determine correct complementary pairs to fill in the gap. Enhancers A group of distal control elements that can regulate the rate of transcription based on what type of protein binds to the region. Amino Acid Each amino acid can be coded for by more than one triplet sequence. While the ____ strand requires multiple RNA primer sequences, the ___ stand only requires one RNA primer. Lagging, leading How does selective degradation act as a regulatory process? Proteins may be "tagged" for degradation and destruction as a mechanism of regulating gene expression. Which modification to the pre-mRNA involves the addition of a guanine nucleotide that has been modified by the attachment of phosphates? 5' cap The precise sequence of genetic information is called the ____ , while the observable characteristics are collectively known as a ____. Genotype, phenotype List stages of translation in order of occurrence... 1. Initiation, 2. Elongation, 3. Termination During the elongation phase of transcription, the polymerase unwinds the ____ in small sections (10-20 nucleotides at a time, and ____ nucleotides are added complimentarily to the template DNA nucleotides. DNA, RNA Which part of the DNA strand encodes for a "start" signal, at which the process of replication will initiated by proteins that recognize and bind those sequences? Origin of replication Which part of RNA is synthesized from a complementary DNA strand an contains the exact sequence of DNA that dicatates "how" to build a protein? MRNA How does Epigenetic inheritance occur? Occurs when chromatin modifications affect a trait and those effects are passed to future generations. How has telomere length been implicated in the treatment of cancer? In essence, telomere shortening may gave a protective effect by limiting the number of times a somatic cell may replicate. Conversely, telomerase activity, which is usually restricted to germ cells, has been found to be abnormally high in somatic cell tumors. Telomerase activity within these cells may provide a pathway for cancer cells to replicate indefinitely since the telomere length is artificially preserved. Alternative splicing Post-transcriptional regulation ___ occurs when other proteins identify inappropriately mismatched nucleotides and replace with the correct nucleotide. Mismatch repair Polyadenylation sequence Immediately signals the end of transcription once transcribed. Deletion mutation Occurs from the loss of nucleotides within a gene Nonsense mutation Occurs when a point mutation turns the intended codon into a 'stop' codon Missense mutation Occurs when one amino acid is replaced with another. Point mutations Occurs when a single nucleotide is changed within a gene Describe the two phases of the cell cycle. Interphase and mitotic phase... interphase consists of G1, S, and G2 phases. G1 and G2 are the gap phases that are characterized by cell growth, such as protein and organelle production. S phase (synthesis) is the time during which chromosomes are duplicated and essential DNA information is replicated to be passed to daughter cells during mitosis. Mitosis is the division of genetic material and can be broken down into 5 subphases... prophase, metaphase, prometaphase, anaphase and telophase. Origin of replication Encodes for a start signal at which the process of replication will be initiated by proteins that recognize and bind to those sequences. Topoisomerase Breaks the hyDrogen bonds of the nucleotide bases. Helicase Untwists and she role of untwisting and separating the helix parent strands at the replication form Replication fork Y Shaped area where the DNA strands are beginning to untwist What are DNA polymerases? DNA polymerase is an enzyme that adds nucleotides to the 3' end of the existing chain via dehydration reactions. Mismatch repair Occurs when other proteins identify inappropriately mismatched nucleotides and replace them with the correct nucleotide. Nucleotide excision repair Deployed when entire stretches of newly synthesized stand is erroneous. The cell deploys the mechanism and nucleases will cleave out a short stretch of DNA on the new star and tend the template strand will again be used to determine the correct complementary pairs to fill the gap. How do telomeres shorten degradation of the 5' ends of DNA? Telomeres are specialized nucleotide sequences that serve as a protective tail on the ends of strands. Telomeres can be thought of as placeholders, namely, short, repeating sequences that do not hold any relevant genetic information. The process by which genes are expressed that encode for proteins occurs in two steps called.... Transcription and translation What type of RNA contains the exact sequence of DNA and dictates "how" to build a protein? MRNA What ar the tree stages of transcription? Initiation, elongation, termination Which stage of transcription involves the polyadenylation sequence? Termination Three modifications that can be made to pre-mRNA for it to be considered functional mature mRNA 1. 5' cap - guanine nucleotide that has been modified by the attachement of phosphates. 2. Poly-A-Tail - seres of 50-250 adenine nucleotides that modifies the 3' end 3. RNA splicing - final modification of pre-mRNA that occurs within the nucleus Introns Noncoding regions of DNA that are removed during RNA splicing Main role of tRNA Transferring available amino acids from the cytosol to the growing polypeptide chain Small subunit of a ribosome has a binding site for... MRNA Which stage of translation involves binding of the small ribosomal unit with mature mRNA? Initiation How do acetylation and methylation act as an "on"/"off" switch for transcription? Acetylation - addition of acetyl groups to an amino acid of the histone (within chromatin) tail, flops the switch "on", inducing transcription. Methylation, which is the addition of methyl groups to the amino acid of the histone tail flips the switch "off", inhibiting transcription. What are the general transcription factors? These proteins are required for all genes that encode for proteins. These factors may bind to the TATA box region within the promoter region, other proteins , or RNA polymerase. What is the benefit of alternative splicing? Production of more than one kind of mRNA from a single primary transcript. Each resulting mRNA will be translated into different proteins based on the spliced exon regions. Endocrine signaling Long-term, regulatory mechanisms including growth and sexual development Local signaling types Synaptic and Paracrine signaling What is the name of the ligands used in the endocrine system? Hormones What are two major classes of hormines and examples of each? Hydrophilic - water soluble, polypeptide and some amines Hydrophobic - steroids and some amines Excitatory neurotransmitters Decrease the electrical threshold by increasing electrical excitability of post synaptic cells , allowing action potentials to be propagated more,. Inhibitory neurotransmitters Increase the electrical threshold by decrease the electrical excitability of the post - synaptic neuron, making it more difficult for action potentials to be propagated. Endocrine glands Ductless structures that secrete hormone products directly into the surrounding extracellular fluid or bloodstream Exocrine glands Secrete their products into a dust system rather than directly into the blood stream. Adrenal glands secrete which hormones? Epinephrine Pineal gland secretes which hormones? Melatonin Hypothalamus acts to promote or inhibit the release of hormones from which endocrine gland? Pituitary Negative feedback loop Regulatory mechanism that results in a decrease in function. Positive feedback loop Final response produced by the target cell reinforces and increased the functional output of the initial stimulus Tropic effects Similar to a cascade pathway; signals from the hypothalamus are redirected to specific endocrine glands , and then the glands release other hormones that target specific cells. Non-tropic effects Occur when a hormone released from the anterior pituitary causes a direct response of the target tissue. Pathophysiology of Graves' disease Autoimmune disorder that results from an over-secretion of thyroid hormones. An antibody produced by the patients own body has a structure like that of TSH. The antibody binds to cells of the thyroid gland, causing the release of large amounts of thyroid hormone. In turn, thyroid hormone binds to bothe the anterior pituitary ad the hypothalamus thus preventing TSH and TRH release. However, thyroid hormone continues to flood the bloodstream becuase of the antibody binding. Inuslin uses which signaling type to achieve its effect within the body? Endocrine Paracrine signaling Local signaling, diffuse to target cells nearby Autocrine signaling Local signaling, diffused a short distance to Target cell Pheromone signaling Ligands released into external environment Neuroendocrine signaling Long distance signaling, ligands transported through the blood and stored within neurons of nervous system Parathyroid gland Secrete a hormone called PTH Adrenal glands Can be divided into medulla and cortex Gonads Reproductive structures Hypothalamus Acts to promote activity in pituitary gland Excitatory neurotransmitters Decrease electrical threshold Inhibitory neurotransmitters Increase electrical threshold Adenohypophysis Anterior portion of pituitary gland Neurohypophysis - Posterior pituitary Local signaling types Autocrine, Paracrine Fight or flight... Epinephrine is released in response to a threatening event Epinephrine binds to GPCR's of hepatocytes kicking off a series of signal transduction events Cyclic AMP activates protein kinase A, which in turn activates the enzyme responsible for beginning the breakdown of glycogen Glycogen is released from cells into the bloodstream to serve a source of immediate energy. Insulin is produced/secreted by Pancreatic islets High level of specialization and multiple autonomous nervous system functions... Hypothalamus Amine Lipid soluble - will bind to intracellular receptor Water soluble - will bind to cell surface receptor Neurohormones Transported throughout the body and can effect many different tissues and organs Neurotransmitters Exert local effects within a synapse Hydrophobic hormone exampl Steroids and some amines... they bind to intracellular receptors on the target cell. Positive feedback loop Labor. It would stop once the baby is born and nervous signals from the cervix to the brain cease. What is the target tissue for aldosterone? Kidneys Tropic effects Hypothalamus stimulates another gland to release hormones that go on to elicit an effect on its target tissue Steroid hormones derivatives of cholesterol Graves' disease Muscles are broken down and used to provide energy for the unusually high metabolic process of other body systems. What neurotransmitter is excitatory? Epinephrine, nitrous oxide. What local regulators are responsible for stimulating a greater response from other cels in te immune system? Cytokines, prostaglandins Regulation of t3 and t4 is run by what feedback mechanism? Negative feedback. Hormone that elicits tropic effects Thyroid Hormone that elicits non-tropic effects Insulin Sensory neurons Receive information from an organisms external an internal environment and transmit the information to th brain Interneurons Connecting neurons that are usually a part of a circuit. Have the role of integrating information so that a response can occur. Motor neurons Outgoing messengers , ,specifically these neurons transmit messages from the brain to muscle fibers or glands to elicit a desired response. 3 types of neurons Sensory, interneurons and motor neurons. At what part of the neuron does the cell body meet the axon? Axon hillock Resting phase Gated Na+ and k+ channels are both closed , and the membrane potential is around -70 mV Depolarization Stimils arrives at the dendrites and caises Na+ ions to flow into the cell down their gradient (from a high to low concentration). K+ channels remain closed. Occurs causing the membrane potential to reach threshold. Rising phase Positive feedback causes the opening of more Na+ channels and Na+ ions flow into the cell, causing a rapid shift i the membrane potential toward a more positive state. K+ channels still closed. Falling phase Na+channels become inactivated and close. Na+ is no longer flowing into the cell. K+ channels now open and K+ flows out of the cell making the cell more negative Undershoot The Na+ channels remain closed while the k+ channels remain open. This efflux of positive K+ ions brings the cell to a state that is more negative than resting state potential known as hyperpolarzed state Action potential stages Resting phase Depolarization Rising phase Falling phase Undershoot Two main ways neurotransmitters are cleared from the synapse? 1. Inactivating enzyme 2. Reuptake Which muscle has the man role of contracting and relaxing so that bones can be moved? Skeletal muscle Thin filaments Actin Thick filaments Myosin Sliding filament model Actin and myosin proteins slide past one another and over lap, leaving ther size unchanged. In a relaxed muscle, the sarcomere has a distinct pattern and the Z-line, actin filaments, and M-line are readily distinguishable. As the muscle begins to contract, the distance between each Z-line gradually decreases as the actin filaments slide toward one another. At full contraction , the actin filament regions seem to have disappeared completely because they have slid past one another and overlapped. Which ion is involved in rigor mortis? Calcium What are reflexes? Provide an example of reflex arc. Relexes are autonomic responses to stimuli that do not involve conscious though or voluntary input. Knee-jerk reflex is rapid protective response that occurs when pressure is applied to sensory neurons. The sensor neurons are attached to a tendon in the knee, and the tendon is attached to the quadriceps muscle. Sensory neurons detect a stimulu and send the information to the spinal cord. Motor neurons within the spinal cord are stimulated two wats - 1. Quadriceps muscle is stimulated to contract. 2. Sensory neuron signals to an Interneurons which facilitates communication between the motor and sensory neurons. SA Node Pacemaker of the heart Electrocardiogram Performed to measure the electrical impulses as they travel though the cardiac muscle. Heart rate Number of times the heart beats per minute Cardiac output the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute Stroke volume The amount of blood ejected from the heart in one contraction. Lub-dub of hear Lub - sound of the blood slapping into the closed A valves. Dub - slamming shut of the larger semilunar valves What blood vessels is BP the lowest Venules Diastolic Pressure that occurs as the artery walls record back to their original size Result of fainting mechanism Your head reaches the same level as your heart as you collapse to the ground in a lying position and quickly increases blood flow to your delicate brain tissue. Which part of the neuron is responsible for receiving signals from other neurons? Dendrite Vasoconstriction Increase in blood pressure Vasodilation Decrease in blood pressure Involuntary control muscles Cardiac and smooth Diastole Relaxation phase of cardiac cycle Systole Contraction phase of cardiac cycle Sensory neuron Receives information from an organisms external and internal environment and transmits info to the brain. During knee-jerk reflex which two lines of communication occur? 1. Sensory neuron sends a stop signal to the quadriceps muscle to protect from potential harm. 2. Sensory neuron communicates with an Interneurons which relays a stop signal to the hamstring muscle to keep it relaxed What is the function of the AV valves? Snaps closed as the ventricles contract in order to preven blood from flowing back in to the atria. Where in the circulatory system is the BP the greates? Aorta and arteries. Z lines Dark, vertical lines that are perpendicular to the horizontal thin an d thick filaments. M Lines Vertically in the middle of each sarcomere, serves as attachement f point for thick filaments. Veins Carry deoxygenated blood to the heart Calcium Important regulatory ion for muscle contractions Inhibitory post synaptic potential Hyperpolarization of the post-synaptic membrane, usually cased by an influx of negatively charged ions. Depolarization phase of action potential A stimulus arrives at the dendrites and causes NA+ channels to open, which allows Na+ ions to flow into the cell down their gradient (from a high to low concentration). Note that K+ channels remain closed. A depolarization occurs casing the memebrane potential to reach the threshold. Depolarization Shift to a more positive membrane potential Hyperpolarization Shift to a more negative membrane potential SA node Can produce electrical impulses without stimulation from neurons. Anatomy Physical form of an organism. Polarization State in which there is a difference in the charge or voltage across the membrane Potential Change in membranes voltage Twitch Each time a somatic motor neuron sends an action potential, each muscle fiber of the motor unit will contract. One cycle of contraction and complete relaxation in response to a stimulus is called a twitch. What two types of conduction fibers send impulses that result in strong, coordinated contraction of the ventricles? Bundle branches and purkinje fibers. Inactivating enzymes May be present in the synaptic cleft and will degrade the neurotransmitter so that it cannot act on the post-synaptic neuron Tetanus the prolonged contraction of a muscle caused by rapidly repeated stimuli Recruitment The tension of a muscle is progressively increased Fatigue A condition in which muscle fiber cannot be stimulated to contract Homeostasis Tendency to maintain equilibrium or Setpoint among interdependent physiological processes despite environmental changes. Regulated by feedback loops. Most common feedback loop is negative feedback which involves a stimulus being reduced or removed. Conversely, positive feedback amplifies a stimulus. PTH and calcitonin maintaining blood calcium levels When blood calcium levels are low, PTH is stimulated to help increase/restore levels to their set point. When blood calcium levels are high, calcitonin is released to help decrease/restore levels to their set point. Type 1 diabetes Too little or no secretion of insulin from the islet cells. Considered insulin dependent. Type 2 diabetes NIDDM, insulin is produced , but cells are resistant to insulin. What roles does Grehlin and Leptin play in sateity. Grehlin is a hormone secreted by cells f the stomach that stimulate the neurons of the hypothalamus to stimulate feelings of hunger. Leptin is released from adipose tissue to inhibit neurons of the hypothalamus producing the sensation of satiety Osmolarity Measure of solute concentration in a liter of solution that contributes to the osmotic pressure of a solution. Number of moles of a given solute per one liter of solution. Osmolarity set point can be change by... Excessive sweating, large increases in salty food consumption, or dehydration due to illness. Angiotensin — angiotensin II Angiotensin is a blood protein synthesized and excreted by the liver. Once released, renin targets angiotensin and converts it to angiotensin I. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) is secreted by the cells of the lungs and kidneys and targets angiotensin I thereby converting it to angiotensin II. Baroreceptors and regulation of BP Sensors in the neck that are located along the large arteries of the neck and chest that monitor BP minute to minute. Permit a person to change from laying to standing without any indication of the changes in blood pressure due to position and gravity. These receptors respond to degree of stretch that occurs within the arteries. Increased stretching serves as an aler that blood pressure is too high and that there is a greater amount of resistance in the vessels. Chemorecetors and regulation of BP Sensors located in the large arteries near the heart that sense changes in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations and changes in blood pH. Restore homeostasis through negative feedback but are reflexive and do not communicate with the hypothalamus. Emergency type regulators. Radiation Gain or loss of infrared energy between two objects that are not in direct contact with each other. Sweating g is an example of.... Evaporation Thrombin is an ____ that converts _____ to fibrin. Enzyme, fibrinogen Convection Transfer of energy (heat) tween the body and air or water is an example of... Nephron Functional unit of kidney Negative feedback Stimulus is reduced or removed. Beta cells of islets... Insulin is manufactured by which cell type? Angiotensinogen Blood protein that renin targets. Grehlin Secreted by cells of stomach, stimulates hunger, stimulated neurons of hypothalamus. When blood calcium levels are high, calcitonin is released and binds to receptors of bone to prevent ____ activity. It also binds to kidney tubule receptors to ____calcium excretion. Osteoclast, increase Role of estrogen during parturition Increases the sensitivity of uterine smooth muscle. PTH Directly increases blood calcium levels by stimulating work of osteoclasts. Directly increases levels by binding to kidney tubules , increasing the reabsorption of Ca. Indirectly increases the blood calcium level by stimulating kidneys to promote the activation of vitamin D. Epinephrine Hormone that targets the heart, blood vessels, liver, and adipose tissue. Binding to heart cells increases heart rate and stroke volume., thereby increasing BP. The smoothie muscle of the blood vessel walls is stimulated to constrict, which also contributes to an increase in BP. The binding of glucagon to ____ tissue facilitates the conversion of stored glycogen into glucose in a process called ____. Liver, glycogenesis Angiotensin II and aldosterone work together to increase BP Angiotensin II targets cells of adrenal cortex. The cells of adrenal cortex respond to angiotensin II by ncresing secretion of aldosteronem which is a steroid hormone that targets cells of the distal tubules that target cells of the distal tubules and collecting ducts to increase in blood volume. The combination of vessel constriction and increase in BP contubutes to BP. ____ diabetes is also called NIDDM and accounts for more than 90% of diabetes cases. With this type of diabetes, cells exhibit resistance to insulin signaling that may be due to a genetic defect in the insulin receptor.w Type II, insulin ADH Known as vasopressin, binds to GPCR's found on the kidney tubules. Excessive alcohol leading to dehydration. Excessive alcohol consumption prevents the release of ADH leading to dehydration. It is released in response to increased blood Osmolarity After a meal the ____ - cells of the pancreas detect a rise in glucose and respond by releasing ___ in to the blood stream. Beta, insulin Inhiitory hornones, produce sateity. Insulin, Leptin, PYY Role of thrombin in blood clotting cascade... Thrombin is an enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin. Kidney response to hyperglycemia? Kidneys begin to excrete increased volumes of urine to rid the body of excess glucose , which often causes dehydration. Treatments for chronic Hypercalcemia may include artificial ____ , drugs called calcimetics , and ____ to increase urine output and calcium excretion. Calcitonin , diuretics Drugs medicines/substances used to prevent or treat a condition or disease Pharmacotherapeutics The branch of science that studies the use of medicine to treat or prevent disease Biologics Agents that are produced naturally by the cells of animals, humans or microorganisms Therapeutics The discipline of science that is concerned with treatment of disease and suffering Pharmacology The study of how drugs can improve human health Natural alternative therapies Naturally grown and harvested Traditional drug therapies Synthetic substances manufactured in a laboratory Pharmaceutics The discipline of dispensing drugs by a pharmacist. 4 phases of drug developement 1. Preclinical investigation 2. Clinical investigation 3. NDA with review 4. Post-marketing studies Two categories of drugs Pharmacological and therapeutic Clinical trial protocol The protocol defines the length of the study, inclusion criteria, outcome to be measured, and the specific tests and/or procedures to assess outcomes. What is a placebo and how is it administered? A substance with no therapeutic value. Administered in the same fashion as the actual drug but will not cause any therapeutic changes. What is informed consent and why is it important to obtain it? General term that refers to a process through which a participant is informed of te potential risks and befits of participating in the study. It is also important that the participant does not fee coerced or confined to participate in the study; enrollment is continually voluntary, and a participant may choose to leave the study if they are uncomfortable. Three types of randomization schemes 1. Simple randomization 2. Restricted randomization 3. Stratification randomization Single blind study Researcher is aware which grou p is receiving treatment but patients are not aware of treatment assignment status. Phase II of clinical trial is concerned with... Efficacy. What is the first pass effect and why must it be considered by providers? Refers to initial metabolism of drugs. After drug has been taken orally, it is absorbed through the small capillaries of the small intestinal wall and into the capillaries and blood vessels of the hepatic portal circulation. This is important to consider for drug dosing ; drug developers need to ensure that the drug will still be effective after making the initial pass through the liver. Additionally, if a patient has liver disease, dosing of a drug may need to be decreased to preven toxicity from a drug that cannot be metabolized. Agonist Facilitates cellular response Pharmacology The study of how drugs can improve human health Absorption Drugs move across mucous membranes or lining of blood vessels. Most oral drugs are absorbed through the small intestine. Certain drugs can hinder food absorption. Traditional drug therapy examples Synthetic substances manufactured in a lab. BBB It is semipermeable, highly selective border comprised of blood vessels and glial cells, anti anxiety drugs can pass through the BBB. Post - marketing phase Adverse SE may not appear until a larger number of people start taking the drug. Clinical investigation phase Clinical trials occur during this phase. Preclinical phase Involves exhaustive laboratory work New drug approval phase A formal review process A drug is an _____ and may act as an ____, in which it binds to a receptor and facilitates a cellular response. Ligand, agonist Open-label study Useful when a novel drug is being compared to an existing drug to assess if the new frug is more effective. Pharmacotherapeutics Branch of science that studies the use of medications to treat or prevent disease. Dependency Phschological and/or physiological need for a substance. Phase Determines maximum tolerated dose. Preclinical phase Cells are grown in culture, and the candidate drug is tested to look for potential harms. The IRB must approve which of the following documents for a clinical trial. Detailed protocol Copies of informed consent. Elimination Rate of the amount of drug that is removed per unit time by conventional physiological processes. Study population Research group adds parameters such as age, gender, and time since diagnosis Beneficence Researchers must take care to minimize harm and maximize benefits for persons involved in human research. Goals of public health Identify rick factors and intervene to reduce morbidity and mortality. Objectives of epidemiology 1. Identifying cause of disease and important risk factors. 2. Determining burden of disease 3. Studying the natural history of the disease 4. Evaluating preventative and therapeutic models 5. Developing public policy Morbidly Symptoms or disabilities that occur from a disease - cancer, pain, SOB, mental health conditions. Mortality Death Why is it essential to determine the burden of a disease? Essential for public health plan in to ensure there are adequate treatment facilities, services, prevention programs, and community education available to lessen the burden. Epidemiologic triad of disease Interactions among host, infectious disease, environment, and mode of transmission. Active surveillance Denotes a system in which health officers or pther public health officials execute procedures to gather pertinent health data. Passive surveillance Denotes techniques in which data reporting is mandated or requested. Advantage and disadvantage of passive surveillance Advantage - inexpensive/uncomplicated Disadvantage - healthcare providers may not provide a detailed report. Advantage and disadvantage of active surveillance Advantage - greater level of accuracy Disadvantage - requires more man power, more expensive. SDOH Physical and situational factors of a persons environment (home, work, school, or neighborhoood)that affect physical health, mental health, quality of life, risks and health outcomes. Proportion Fraction of population inflicted with disease Direction Nature or impact of the disease exposure on disease development Magnitude Illustrates the strength of relationship between exposure and disease. Two main ways to classify observational studies - 1. Analytical 2. Descriptive Measures of association are used for... Allow researchers to evaluate the hypothesis that an exposure (preceding a disease) could be the cause of that disease. Prevalence the number of people who have ever had a disorder at a given time or over a specified period Which type of study is often the first step on assessing a relationship between exposure and outcome? Ecological studies Rate Measure of association of incidence Odds ratio Most appropriate meaure of association for case-control studies Attributable risk Risk of developing the disease, in exposed group that can be attributed to the exposure. Cross sectional Prevalence Attack rates Proportions, not rates The corpus luteum: is the initial source of progesterone during pregnancy. Your lungs are derived from which of the following embryonic germ layers? the endoderm Infertility of two prospective parents is defined as: the inability to become pregnant after one year of trying. What structure in a sperm cell contains what might be called "a cap or bag containing digestive enzymes"? acrosome After ovulation, approximately halfway through the female menstrual cycle, levels of progesterone rise sharply. What is the primary function of progesterone at this point in the menstrual cycle? to maintain the endometrial lining of the uterus, where a fertilized egg can implant Which type of reproduction is disadvantageous when the environment is ever-changing? Answer a), c), and d) are all disadvantageous. The SRY, or sex determining gene, is most noted for: causing an embryo to develop into a boy. A disadvantage of asexual reproduction is that: it results in less genetic variation in a population. Which of the following is TRUE about reproductive-related technology? Sperm can be sorted in the laboratory into those containing an X or a Y. What is the most reliable signal that a woman is about to give birth? dilation of the cervix up to about 10 cm The formation of a multicellular organism from a fertilized egg is called development. Development is accomplished through the processes of: mitosis and cytokinesis. Which of the following statements about sexually transmitted diseases is true? STDs can be transmitted through the mouth or the anus. During the course of your study of an animal species that alternates between sexually and asexually reproducing stages, you observe a long period of time during which your study animals reproduce asexually without any evidence of sexual reproduction. Which of the following strategies would you first use to attempt to induce sexual behavior? Gradually make the environment less favorable. Aside from the need to find a partner, which of the following is another major DISADVANTAGE of sexual reproduction? Finding a mate can consume lots of energy and time. In humans, as well as mammals, birds, and reptiles, the growing embryo is surrounded by a water-filled chamber to keep it wet and to provide insulation and protection. What is this name of the membrane that surrounds this chamber? amnion You are trying to determine whether or not a woman is pregnant based on hormone levels in her body. Based on what you know about hormone activity in the female reproductive system, which of the following hormones would be the best indicator of pregnancy? human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) The "toxic semen" found in fruit flies has been discovered to have which of the following effects? Semen from a male fly suppresses further mating in a female for several days. Tying off the vas deferens will: None of the above. The three embryonic germ layers formed during gastrulation are the: ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. Which of the following statements is true about external fertilization in most species? All of the above are true. What is colostrum? the substance that is released when a woman first begins to lactate What process allows sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida surrounding the mature egg just before fertilization? sperm bind to the zona pellucida, triggering the egg response to open its membrane like a gate During the human menstrual cycle, a sudden increase in which of the following hormones causes the follicle to rupture, releasing the egg from the ovary? luteinizing hormone The circular muscle at the opening to the uterus in human females is called the: cervix. During ovulation in human females, the mature egg is released from the ________, travels through the ________ where fertilization occurs, and embeds in the ________. follicle, Fallopian tube, uterus In the process of spermatogenesis shown in the diagram, which is the stage where sperm FIRST become haploid? primary spermatocyte What is the goal of the reproductive technology-related process known as "sperm sorting"? to increase the chances of having a girl or a boy, specifically, through ART For which of the following reasons might a man claim a reasonable legal right to an embryo produced by fertilizing an egg with his sperm? The embryo contains half of the man's DNA . Which of the following is located in the testis? seminiferous tubules What triggers the onset of menstruation in women? falling levels of estrogen and progesterone in the bloodstream In which stage in embryonic development are the germ layers created? gastrulation Sperm are produced in the _______ and stored in the ________. They then travel into the penis through the ________ and are ejaculated through the ________. seminiferous tubules; epididymis; vas deferens; urethra In what way does egg production differ from sperm production in humans? Each egg is considerably larger than a sperm. Which of the following is a known evolutionary adaptation arising from sperm competition? Both a) and b) are known evolutionary adaptations arising from sperm competition. Prior to fertilization, the pathway traveled by sperm through the female reproductive system is: vagina, cervix, uterus, Fallopian tube. The part of the uterus that sloughs off at menstruation is a portion of the: endometrium. The acrosome of the sperm: carries the enzymes that help digest the exterior coats of the egg. Which three sets of accessory glands add secretions to the semen in human males? the seminal vesicles, the prostate gland, and the bulbourethral glands Why are STDs nearly impossible to eradicate from the population? Infected people are often asymptomatic and all partners have to be treated simultaneously to prevent re-infection. Contraception usually involves one of three methods. What are these three? preventing fertilization, preventing implantation, preventing ovulation Which of the following is NOT generally correct about the difference between egg and sperm in sexually reproducing animals? Eggs have more chromosomes than do sperm. Which STDs can be treated with antifungal suppositories or creams? yeast infections Most of the "eggs" in the ovary are arrested as ________ in the process of oogenesis when a female reaches puberty. primary oocytes A(n) ________ is released from the ovary in the event known as ovulation. secondary oocyte A follicle cell that remains behind after ovulation: is the initial source of progesterone during pregnancy. An animal called a hydra can reproduce by growing a miniature version of itself directly from the tissues of the parent. The miniature hydra then breaks off and grows to full size. This type of reproduction is best called: budding. Which of the following is true about birth control pills? They slightly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease in women, especially if they smoke. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding meiosis in women? Every oogonium produces four mature ova. Blood pressure falls with distance from the heart. Using this information, which of the following properly lists the type of blood vessel from HIGHEST blood pressure to LOWEST blood pressure? arteries; capillaries; veins Which of the following is NOT a typical type of lung damage that smoking causes? All of the above are typical of the damage smoking causes. Which of the following organisms has an open circulatory system? grasshoppers Organisms with an open circulatory system: pump blood throughout the spaces of their body cavity where it mixes with tissue fluids. Which of the following organisms does NOT have a closed circulatory system? Both a) and d) are correct answers. What is the disadvantage of having a "single circuit" with the gills set between the heart and the rest of the tissues? Organisms with this configuration cannot sustain as much activity as those with two circuits. The lymphatic system is a fluid transport system vital for human health. Instead of blood, this system transports _________, which fills its own capillaries and vessels and is made up of the _________________ fluid that bathes cells. lymph; interstitial Which of the following is the name of the fluid in an insect's open circulatory system? hemolymph Amphibians have: two partially separated circuits of blood flow. Oxygen is carried in the blood stream, throughout the body via: red blood cells. Chickens' breast muscles are light in color. Chicken breast meat is mostly "white meat." This means that: chicken breast muscle contains hardly any myoglobin. Amphibians must constantly keep their skin moist because: the moisture is essential to maintain gas exchange across the skin. Which of the following is NOT measured by a polygraph? eye twitches When it comes to acquiring fuel and raw materials, why does the size of a multicellular eukaryotic organism matter? Choose the BEST explanation. Larger organisms are made of more cells, most of which are no longer in direct contact with the outside world. Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood plasma in vertebrates? breaking down large carbohydrates into more easily absorbable smaller carbohydrates Which of the following is NOT a diving adaptation? faster heart rate Which of the following is NOT a component of the blood plasma? leukocytes In what way are lymph ducts like veins in the cardiovascular system? They both have one-way valves. What is the main function of the sinoatrial (SA) node? choreograph an efficient contraction of the heart Which of the following is measured in the polygraph test in order to detect the activity of the sweat glands? skin conductance What might be the explanation for why crocodiles, but not other reptiles, have an "extra" artery to direct blood to the tissues directly from the right ventricle? Crocodiles spend more time underwater and sending blood to inactive lungs makes no sense. Which of the following is NOT a major difference between open and closed circulatory systems? Open systems are only found in flat organisms, while closed systems are found in organisms with more complex shape. Which of the following statements about the crocodilian circulatory system is FALSE? Crocodiles have open circulatory systems. Gill arches provide support to gill filaments. Why is countercurrent exchange of oxygen in fish gills so efficient? It maintains a concentration gradient between the water and the bloodstream for the entire time that the water and blood vessel are in close contact. The cardiac cycle of a heartbeat is often said to occur in phases of "lub" and "dup." What physical action of the heart muscle actually causes these two sounds? "Lub" signifies the closing of the AV valves; "dup" signifies the closing of the semilunar valves. The hardening of arteries is known as: arteriosclerosis. With each heartbeat, the muscle cells coordinate themselves so that each contraction is forceful enough to circulate blood through the entire body. The beat begins in the _____________node, which sets the tempo of each beat, thus giving it the name of pacemaker. sinoatrial The three principle functions of the vertebrate circulatory system are: transport, protection, and body temperature regulation Which of the following is LEAST conducive to the acquisition of oxygen from the environment? warm water Which of the following CANNOT be done by a mammalian red blood cell? undergo mitosis Both red blood cells and white blood cells are derived from cells in: the bone marrow. What circulatory problem leads most directly to the formation of varicose veins? malfunctioning valves in veins Deoxygenated blood enters the heart through what vessels? vena cavae Amphibians and reptiles have very similar circulatory systems. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about their systems? Both systems have two atria and one ventricle, but in the amphibians, the ventricle is divided into two halves. The atrioventricular valves of the human heart have "heart strings" attached to the ventricular side of the valve flaps. These strings, properly called chordae tendinae, reach downward from the valves and attach to the bottom of the ventricles. They are long enough to just allow the valve flaps to shut. Which of the following is probably the biological role of the chordae tendinae? They prevent the atrioventricular valve flaps from being "blown backwards" into the atria during ventricular contraction. Which of the following best describes the inhalation process? The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract. The diaphragm is pulled lower, causing the rib cage to expand. The rapid increase in volume of the chest cavity causes air to be sucked into the lungs. Blood flowing out of the narrow, thin-walled vessels in the tissues flows next into: veins Which of the following is the correct pathway air takes during a bird's first inhalation? trachea; anterior air sac; lung Why are the skins of amphibians and the lungs of mammals kept wet all the time? Gas exchange works best when going from air into liquid. Fish have a closed circulatory system that is unique among other complex vertebrates. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the fish's circulatory system? The heart pumps blood through the body first then past the gills. Which of the following statements is FALSE about breathing oxygen from air or water? Water can hold more oxygen than air can, in an equal volume. Why is there less air pressure at higher elevations? There is less atmosphere "pushing down" from above as one gets higher in elevation. Which of the following is most responsible for initiating labor? In which part of a sperm cell can mitochondria be found? body Which of the following describes the three events in sperm production, from just after meiosis to deposition in the female reproductive tract? maturation, storage and transfer, delivery A primary function of the prostate gland is: to produce the fluid (non-sperm) components of semen Which of the following is an example of ovoviviparity? An embryo develops inside diamondback rattlesnake but it is nourished from egg yolk that is packaged with it inside an egg The three important functions of the lymphatic system are: recycling fluid, retrieving nutrients, fighting illness Which of the following statements is NOT true about the diving adaptations of marine mammals like the Weddell seal? Seals increase their blood pressure when they dive Which of the following is NOT a likely characteristic of an organism that relies on simple diffusion for respiration? low surface area to volume ratio Which of the following best describes how the ventricles of the heart contract? from the bottom upwards Heart attacks are usually caused by an interruption in blood flow in the: coronary arteries Animals like jellyfish and cnidarians acquire nutrients and oxygen by: direct diffusion A person with a relatively high concentration of diphosphoglyceric acid (DPG) inside his red blood cells would be expected to have hemoglobin with reduced oxygen affinity Why do cells require oxygen gas? Cells need oxygen in order to convert sugar into ATP energy Magnesium is an important nutrient for plants. This is because: magnesium is a component of chlorophyll. If the shoots of plants are covered with an impermeable cuticle layer, how do plants manage to exchange water and gas with the surrounding environment? Specialized pores in the cuticle called stomata allow gas and water exchange ________________is one of the most abundant elements in the Earth's crust, but it is not required by plants. Sodium The _____________ is the region of the plant that undergoes rapid mitotic cell division and is the plant's main source of cells. meristem Which of the following important crop plants is associated with nitrogen-fixing bacteria? soybeans Plants have specialized cells to move water, nutrients, and sugars from one part of the plant to another. The _________ transports water and mineral nutrients, while the ____________ transports sugars. xylem; phloem Evaporation from the leaves of a tree will pull water up through the roots as an unbroken column throughout the entire height of the tree. This feat is possible because of which characteristic of water? cohesion Leaves are generally thin, with a three-layered structure that includes all of the following EXCEPT: apical meristem cells Which is NOT true about plant nutrition? No plant can grow without soil. Humus is: decomposing organic material in the soil. Stomata are: holes created by open guard cells in a leaf. Which of the following is NOT a proper description of the cuticle of a flowering plant? The cuticle covers every portion of a flowering plant. What type of plant tissue can be described as "elongated but flexible, stringy cells"? collenchyma Cohesion of water molecules in the xylem of a plant is a result of: hydrogen bonds between the oxygen of one water molecule and a hydrogen of another water molecule. The specialized pores that facilitate gas exchange in plants are known as: stomata. The process of water absorption by plant roots generally relies on __________ across the membranes of cells in __________. osmosis; root hairs. The __________ is made of dead cells with rigid cell walls that provide a plant with support, as well as conducting water through the plant. xylem Which of the following tissues is found in the stem of a plant but not found in the leaves of a plant? meristematic tissues What are the initial leaves produced by a seedling called? cotyledons What role does soil play in the life of a terrestrial plant? All of the above are correct. Just like the human body is composed of many different tissue types, a flowering plant is made of various tissues. Which of the following is NOT one of the tissues of a flowering plant? air tissue In trees, the epidermis on the stem and roots is replaced by a protective covering of dead: cork cells. What are the elongated, stringy cells found in the plant stem that is partially peeled in the picture? collenchyma cells Which of the following is most important in providing structural support in vascular plants? xylem Phloem is largely composed of cells known as: living sieve tube cells Each of the various tissues of a flowering plant serve their own individual functions. Which of the following does NOT properly match a flowering plant's tissue with its function within the plant? shoots: anchors plant to ground, absorbs water and minerals from soil Based upon the size of the particles, the three classifications of soil, from largest particle size to smallest particle size are: sand, silt, and clay. For a typical green plant to thrive, it needs: sunlight, water, carbon dioxide, oxygen, and minerals. There are two different analogies to describe how fluid is transported through a plant; that of the drinking straw (negative pressure) and that of the hose (positive pressure). Which of the following properly links the type of vascular tissue with its corresponding analogy? xylem: straw; phloem: hose When mineral concentrations are higher inside root cells than in the soil: plants must use ATP to import more minerals. Which of the following soil textures has the greatest ability to hold water? clay Which of the following, if added to soil, would best prevent minerals from being leached away? humus Girdling—removing an unbroken ring of bark around the entire circumference of a tree—will kill the tree. Just above the point of girdling, the bark will become swollen. Why? Sugars moving from the leaves of the tree to the roots in the phloem are blocked in their transport and collect in place. Which of the following essential plant nutrients is NOT generally taken up through the roots? carbon The vast bulk of the soil has its origin in: the weathering of solid rock. The "pressure-flow mechanism" in trees explains how: how sap moves through phloem Which of the following properly contrasts the two varieties of dicot leaves; simple and compound? Simple leaves are flat and not divided into sections. Compound leaves are divided into separate leaflets. Which of the following is TRUE about plant leaves? They must allow some water vapor to escape through stomata in order to transport water from the roots into the leaves. Which of the following is a function of a plant's roots? anchor the plant in place Mycorrhizae are beneficial to plants mostly because: they help increase water absorption into the roots. Phloem and xylem are both cells that transport fluids throughout a plant, but differ in many ways. While phloem cells are __________, xylem cells are __________. Furthermore, phloem moves nutrients in __________ directions while xylem moves water in ___________ directions. alive; dead; both lateral and horizontal; only lateral The pressure-flow hypothesis for phloem movement would predict a movement of sugars from leaves to storage areas under which of the following conditions? Leaves produce sugars; storage areas convert sugars to starch. Which of the following statements is true about tree growth? The vascular cambium produces wood. Asexual reproduction in plants: is common when a population occurs in a marginal habitat. Which of the following is NOT true about secondary growth seen in trees? Cells of the vascular cambium produce a ring of cells toward the inside of the trunk called the lateral meristem. Flowering plants have evolved to attract animals to assist them in pollination. Which of the following animals is not a common pollinator of flowering plants? All of the above are common animal pollinators of flowering plants Seeds germinate only when levels of water, temperature, and _______ are "just right." oxygen Unlike in animals, most of a tree's cells are: dead Carrion flowers mostly attract: flies. What is the structure on a flowering plant that receives the pollen granules? the stigma Which of the following characteristics do most plants share with land animals? an embryo that develops within a protected environment Which of the following is the proper sequence of events occurring when a flowering plant reproduces? meiosis; pollination; fertilization; embryo formation When, after seed germination, does photosynthesis begin? when the shoot emerges from the soil Which of the following is NOT true about a plant seed? It is fleshy, juicy, and edible. The common term for the action of transferring pollen grains from an anther onto a stigma is: pollination. Asexual reproduction occurs in plants, in which the prog