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NBME 17NBME CBSE EXAM 2026/2027 ACTUAL
COMPLETE 200 REAL VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+ (ASSURED!!) 2025 NEWEST
EXAM!!!
10 year old boy has had anemia since birth. His spleen is
five time times normal size. Splenectomy is indicated if the
anemia is caused by which of the following disorders? -
Answer-Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency--
--patients are able to live with spherocytes. its the
extravascular hemolysis which is causing the problem and
symptoms. so if remove the source of the hemolysis, we
can help the patient.
38 year old man comes to the physician because of a 1
week history of watery, itchy eyes and a runny nose. He
works as a crane operator. Physical examination shows
inflamed nasal mucosa. There is no congestion in the
lower lung. Which of the following is the most appropriate
pharmacotherapy - Answer-Loratadine, 1st generation has
antimuscarinic effect and it wouldn't hel him since his job
is a crane operator and Ranitidine is for peptic ulcer
disease
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atient is 30 y/o 22 weeks gestation. One day history of
fever, chills, and muscle aches. Fever, high pulse, and low
BP. Uterus size is consistent with gestation. Fetal heart
sounds present. Leukocyte count 12,000. Blood cultures
show gram positive rods What the organism that causes
this? - Answer-(In pregnant if you see a vignette like this
one always link it with L. monocytogenes).
Patient is 9 y/o with poor growth and weight. Bitemporal
hemianopsia. Labs show GH deficiency. MRI shows
calcified cystic mass in suprasellar region. Tumor is
derived from which of the following? - Answer-Diverticulum
of the roof of the embryonic oral cavity, Ependymal layer of
the median eminence, Hypophyseal cartilage, Neural crest
cells of the rhombencephalon, Neuroectoderm of the
diencephalon. (Craniopharyngioma given her age).
44-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up
examination after two separate Pap smears showed
atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance.
Results of a molecular diagnostic test show the presence
of the viral E6 protein of human papillomavirus. This
protein is known to promote cell growth and malignancy by
causing cellular p53 protein degradation. This degradation
most likely begins when the p53 protein is targeted to
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which of the following types of cellular enzymes? -
Answer-Ubiquitin ligase protein degradation
42-yo amek is brought to the ED by his wife because of a
5hr history of fever, chills, and severe pain and swelling of
his left arm. His wife says he scratched his arm on a nail
while repairing a fence in the yard yesterday. He appears
confused. His temperature is 40C/104F, pulse 140, resps
25, and BP 71/38mmHg. PE of the left upper extremity
shows edema and erythema in the area of the scratch.
Lab studies. pt's symptoms are most likely directly
attributable to systemic release of which of the following
cytokines - Answer-IL-1 for fever (thus acute phase), so
that eliminates d-f. IFN-alpha is released by virus-infected
cells, and TNF-alpha is involved in making granulomas,
leaving b) as the answer
24-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use is
brought to the emergency department by his roommate 30
minutes after he could not be aroused. The friend reports
that the patient injected himself with a drug approximately
6 hours ago. Laboratory studies show a serum drug
concentration of 0.30 mg/L. Assuming the drug exhibits
first-order one-compartment kinetics, has a half-life of2
hours, and a volume of distribution of 200 L in this patient,
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which of the following is the most likely approximate
quantity of the drug (in mg) injected? - Answer-480 (6hrs
post injection. So 3 half lives by now. Which means initial
concentration of drug in the plasma was (0.3*2*2*2).
Multiply that with 200 (Volume of distribution to get amount
of drug that was in the body in mg)
newborn delivered at 38 weeks gestation, weighs 1800
grams, shows petechial rash, microcephaly, HPSM,
serologic testing shows, mother= CMV-IgG +, CMV-IgM -
baby is CMV-IgG+, CMV-IgG+, most likely explanation?? -
Answer-PASSIVE transfer of maternal CMV IgG and IgM
antibodies through the breastmilj. congenital CMV
infection that was transmitted transplacentally during the
first or second trimester of pregnancy. In contrast, the
infant with acquired CMV infection after birth resulting in
illness several weeks later. Perinatally, CMV can be
transmitted through breast milk or vaginal secretions.
Premature infants however, are particularly susceptible to
transmission through transfusion of blood products
30y/0 female training for marathon, running 20 miles/d.
she says as long as she takes adequate calories, she
feesl well on long distance runs of 20 miles. p/e normal.
serum glucose 60 mg/dl. after her glucose stores have
NBME 17NBME CBSE EXAM 2026/2027 ACTUAL
COMPLETE 200 REAL VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+ (ASSURED!!) 2025 NEWEST
EXAM!!!
10 year old boy has had anemia since birth. His spleen is
five time times normal size. Splenectomy is indicated if the
anemia is caused by which of the following disorders? -
Answer-Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency--
--patients are able to live with spherocytes. its the
extravascular hemolysis which is causing the problem and
symptoms. so if remove the source of the hemolysis, we
can help the patient.
38 year old man comes to the physician because of a 1
week history of watery, itchy eyes and a runny nose. He
works as a crane operator. Physical examination shows
inflamed nasal mucosa. There is no congestion in the
lower lung. Which of the following is the most appropriate
pharmacotherapy - Answer-Loratadine, 1st generation has
antimuscarinic effect and it wouldn't hel him since his job
is a crane operator and Ranitidine is for peptic ulcer
disease
,2|Page
atient is 30 y/o 22 weeks gestation. One day history of
fever, chills, and muscle aches. Fever, high pulse, and low
BP. Uterus size is consistent with gestation. Fetal heart
sounds present. Leukocyte count 12,000. Blood cultures
show gram positive rods What the organism that causes
this? - Answer-(In pregnant if you see a vignette like this
one always link it with L. monocytogenes).
Patient is 9 y/o with poor growth and weight. Bitemporal
hemianopsia. Labs show GH deficiency. MRI shows
calcified cystic mass in suprasellar region. Tumor is
derived from which of the following? - Answer-Diverticulum
of the roof of the embryonic oral cavity, Ependymal layer of
the median eminence, Hypophyseal cartilage, Neural crest
cells of the rhombencephalon, Neuroectoderm of the
diencephalon. (Craniopharyngioma given her age).
44-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up
examination after two separate Pap smears showed
atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance.
Results of a molecular diagnostic test show the presence
of the viral E6 protein of human papillomavirus. This
protein is known to promote cell growth and malignancy by
causing cellular p53 protein degradation. This degradation
most likely begins when the p53 protein is targeted to
,3|Page
which of the following types of cellular enzymes? -
Answer-Ubiquitin ligase protein degradation
42-yo amek is brought to the ED by his wife because of a
5hr history of fever, chills, and severe pain and swelling of
his left arm. His wife says he scratched his arm on a nail
while repairing a fence in the yard yesterday. He appears
confused. His temperature is 40C/104F, pulse 140, resps
25, and BP 71/38mmHg. PE of the left upper extremity
shows edema and erythema in the area of the scratch.
Lab studies. pt's symptoms are most likely directly
attributable to systemic release of which of the following
cytokines - Answer-IL-1 for fever (thus acute phase), so
that eliminates d-f. IFN-alpha is released by virus-infected
cells, and TNF-alpha is involved in making granulomas,
leaving b) as the answer
24-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use is
brought to the emergency department by his roommate 30
minutes after he could not be aroused. The friend reports
that the patient injected himself with a drug approximately
6 hours ago. Laboratory studies show a serum drug
concentration of 0.30 mg/L. Assuming the drug exhibits
first-order one-compartment kinetics, has a half-life of2
hours, and a volume of distribution of 200 L in this patient,
, 4|Page
which of the following is the most likely approximate
quantity of the drug (in mg) injected? - Answer-480 (6hrs
post injection. So 3 half lives by now. Which means initial
concentration of drug in the plasma was (0.3*2*2*2).
Multiply that with 200 (Volume of distribution to get amount
of drug that was in the body in mg)
newborn delivered at 38 weeks gestation, weighs 1800
grams, shows petechial rash, microcephaly, HPSM,
serologic testing shows, mother= CMV-IgG +, CMV-IgM -
baby is CMV-IgG+, CMV-IgG+, most likely explanation?? -
Answer-PASSIVE transfer of maternal CMV IgG and IgM
antibodies through the breastmilj. congenital CMV
infection that was transmitted transplacentally during the
first or second trimester of pregnancy. In contrast, the
infant with acquired CMV infection after birth resulting in
illness several weeks later. Perinatally, CMV can be
transmitted through breast milk or vaginal secretions.
Premature infants however, are particularly susceptible to
transmission through transfusion of blood products
30y/0 female training for marathon, running 20 miles/d.
she says as long as she takes adequate calories, she
feesl well on long distance runs of 20 miles. p/e normal.
serum glucose 60 mg/dl. after her glucose stores have
