1
PCT NHA Exam 2026/2027 Actual
Exam | 100% Correct Answers | Latest
Version Expert Verified | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Patient Care and Safety
Q1: A patient care technician is caring for a patient at risk for falls. Which of the following
interventions is MOST important?
A. Placing the call light within reach
B. Keeping the bed in the lowest position with brakes locked [CORRECT]
C. Using night lights in the room
D. Applying soft wrist restraints
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position with brakes locked reduces the risk of injury
from falls out of bed. Options A and C are important but not the most effective single
intervention. Option D (restraints) increases fall risk and injury.
Q2: A fire alarm sounds in the facility. Which acronym guides the correct order of actions?
A. PASS
B. RACE [CORRECT]
C. ABC
D. CAB
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate. PASS (Pull, Aim,
Squeeze, Sweep) is used for operating a fire extinguisher. ABC and CAB are for CPR.
,2
Q3: Which of the following is the correct procedure for identifying a patient before performing a
procedure?
A. Asking the patient to state their name
B. Checking the patient's ID bracelet against the medical record [CORRECT]
C. Asking the roommate to confirm the patient's identity
D. Checking the name on the door
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Proper identification requires checking the patient's armband and comparing it to the
medical record, while asking the patient to state their name and date of birth. Option A is part of
the process but relies solely on patient verbalization. Option C violates privacy and reliability.
Option D is unsafe.
Q4: A PCT is applying restraints to a patient. How often must the PCT check the patient's
circulation and skin integrity?
A. Every 15 minutes [CORRECT]
B. Every 30 minutes
C. Every hour
D. Every 2 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Restraints require monitoring of circulation, skin integrity, and respiratory status
every 15 minutes to prevent injury. Documentation typically occurs at these intervals.
Q5: While transferring a patient from the bed to a wheelchair, the patient begins to fall. Which
action should the PCT take?
A. Try to catch the patient to prevent them from hitting the floor
B. Ease the patient to the floor while supporting their body [CORRECT]
,3
C. Yell for help and hold the patient upright
D. Let go of the patient to avoid injuring yourself
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PCT should use proper body mechanics to ease the patient to the floor safely
(sliding them down the PCT's leg) to prevent injury to both the patient and the technician. Trying
to catch a falling patient (A) can cause back injury to the staff.
Q6: A patient is on suicide precautions. Which of the following items must be removed from the
room?
A. Bed linens
B. Plastic eating utensils
C. Shoelaces and sharp objects [CORRECT]
D. Television remote
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Suicide precautions require removing items that can be used for self-harm, such as
shoelaces, belts, sharp objects, and plastic bags. Plastic utensils (B) are often permitted if
supervised, but sharps are a priority removal.
Q7: When moving a patient up in bed, the PCT should:
A. Keep the knees straight and bend at the waist
B. Place the bed in the high position and use a draw sheet [CORRECT]
C. Use a side-to-side rocking motion
D. Pull the patient by the arms
Correct Answer: B
, 4
Rationale: The bed should be raised to the PCT's waist level to prevent back strain. A draw sheet
(friction-reducing device) should be used with multiple staff members. Bending at the waist (A)
causes injury. Pulling by arms (D) risks shoulder dislocation.
Q8: A patient has an order for seizure precautions. Which equipment should be readily available
at the bedside?
A. Oxygen and suction equipment [CORRECT]
B. Restraints and sedatives
C. A tongue blade and flashlight
D. A soft mattress and pillow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suction equipment is needed to clear secretions and maintain an airway; oxygen may
be needed post-ictally. Tongue blades (C) should never be inserted into a seizing patient's mouth.
Q9: A chemical spill occurs in the utility room. What is the first action the PCT should take?
A. Call the supervisor
B. Consult the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) [CORRECT]
C. Wipe up the spill with paper towels
D. Evacuate the entire facility
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The MSDS (or SDS) provides specific instructions for cleaning up hazardous
chemicals safely. Not all chemicals are treated the same (e.g., some react with water).
Q10: Which of the following patients is at the HIGHEST risk for developing a pressure ulcer?
A. A 30-year-old ambulatory patient
B. A 45-year-old patient with a fractured arm
C. A 70-year-old patient who is unconscious and immobile [CORRECT]
PCT NHA Exam 2026/2027 Actual
Exam | 100% Correct Answers | Latest
Version Expert Verified | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Patient Care and Safety
Q1: A patient care technician is caring for a patient at risk for falls. Which of the following
interventions is MOST important?
A. Placing the call light within reach
B. Keeping the bed in the lowest position with brakes locked [CORRECT]
C. Using night lights in the room
D. Applying soft wrist restraints
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position with brakes locked reduces the risk of injury
from falls out of bed. Options A and C are important but not the most effective single
intervention. Option D (restraints) increases fall risk and injury.
Q2: A fire alarm sounds in the facility. Which acronym guides the correct order of actions?
A. PASS
B. RACE [CORRECT]
C. ABC
D. CAB
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate. PASS (Pull, Aim,
Squeeze, Sweep) is used for operating a fire extinguisher. ABC and CAB are for CPR.
,2
Q3: Which of the following is the correct procedure for identifying a patient before performing a
procedure?
A. Asking the patient to state their name
B. Checking the patient's ID bracelet against the medical record [CORRECT]
C. Asking the roommate to confirm the patient's identity
D. Checking the name on the door
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Proper identification requires checking the patient's armband and comparing it to the
medical record, while asking the patient to state their name and date of birth. Option A is part of
the process but relies solely on patient verbalization. Option C violates privacy and reliability.
Option D is unsafe.
Q4: A PCT is applying restraints to a patient. How often must the PCT check the patient's
circulation and skin integrity?
A. Every 15 minutes [CORRECT]
B. Every 30 minutes
C. Every hour
D. Every 2 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Restraints require monitoring of circulation, skin integrity, and respiratory status
every 15 minutes to prevent injury. Documentation typically occurs at these intervals.
Q5: While transferring a patient from the bed to a wheelchair, the patient begins to fall. Which
action should the PCT take?
A. Try to catch the patient to prevent them from hitting the floor
B. Ease the patient to the floor while supporting their body [CORRECT]
,3
C. Yell for help and hold the patient upright
D. Let go of the patient to avoid injuring yourself
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PCT should use proper body mechanics to ease the patient to the floor safely
(sliding them down the PCT's leg) to prevent injury to both the patient and the technician. Trying
to catch a falling patient (A) can cause back injury to the staff.
Q6: A patient is on suicide precautions. Which of the following items must be removed from the
room?
A. Bed linens
B. Plastic eating utensils
C. Shoelaces and sharp objects [CORRECT]
D. Television remote
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Suicide precautions require removing items that can be used for self-harm, such as
shoelaces, belts, sharp objects, and plastic bags. Plastic utensils (B) are often permitted if
supervised, but sharps are a priority removal.
Q7: When moving a patient up in bed, the PCT should:
A. Keep the knees straight and bend at the waist
B. Place the bed in the high position and use a draw sheet [CORRECT]
C. Use a side-to-side rocking motion
D. Pull the patient by the arms
Correct Answer: B
, 4
Rationale: The bed should be raised to the PCT's waist level to prevent back strain. A draw sheet
(friction-reducing device) should be used with multiple staff members. Bending at the waist (A)
causes injury. Pulling by arms (D) risks shoulder dislocation.
Q8: A patient has an order for seizure precautions. Which equipment should be readily available
at the bedside?
A. Oxygen and suction equipment [CORRECT]
B. Restraints and sedatives
C. A tongue blade and flashlight
D. A soft mattress and pillow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suction equipment is needed to clear secretions and maintain an airway; oxygen may
be needed post-ictally. Tongue blades (C) should never be inserted into a seizing patient's mouth.
Q9: A chemical spill occurs in the utility room. What is the first action the PCT should take?
A. Call the supervisor
B. Consult the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) [CORRECT]
C. Wipe up the spill with paper towels
D. Evacuate the entire facility
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The MSDS (or SDS) provides specific instructions for cleaning up hazardous
chemicals safely. Not all chemicals are treated the same (e.g., some react with water).
Q10: Which of the following patients is at the HIGHEST risk for developing a pressure ulcer?
A. A 30-year-old ambulatory patient
B. A 45-year-old patient with a fractured arm
C. A 70-year-old patient who is unconscious and immobile [CORRECT]
