, NURS 6630N Final Exam
NURS 6630N FINAL EXAM NURS-6630N
FINAL EXAM
Latest 8 New Versions
76 Q & A in Each Version, Verified and 100 % Correct|
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Week 11 Final Exam
Question 1
0 out of 1 points
A patient diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder has been
taking a high-dose SSRI and is participating in therapy twice a week.
He reports an inability to carry out responsibilities due to consistent
interferences of his obsessions and compulsions. The PMHNP
knows that the next step would be which of the following?
Selected Answer: B.
Decrease his SSRI and add an MAOI.
Question 2
0 out of 1 points
Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to
treating patients for impulsive aggression?
Selected B.
Answer: Atypical antipsychotics can increase subcortical
dopaminergic stimulation.
Question 3
, 1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP evaluates a patient presenting with symptoms of
dementia. Before the PMHNP considers treatment options, the
patient must be assessed for other possible causes of dementia.
Which of the following answers addresses both possible other causes
of dementia and a rational treatment option for Dementia?
Selected B.
Answer: Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, adrenal
insufficiency, hyperparathyroidism
Possible treatment option: donepezil
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
An 80-year-old female patient diagnosed with Stage II Alzheimer’s
has a history of irritable bowel syndrome. Which cholinergic drug
may be the best choice for treatment given the patient’s
gastrointestinal problems?
Selected Answer: A.
Donepezil (Aricept)
Question 5
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is teaching parents about their child’s new prescription
for Ritalin. What will the PMHNP include in the teaching?
Selected Answer: D.
There will be continued effects into the evening.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP prescribes gabapentin (Neurontin) for a patient’s
NURS 6630N FINAL EXAM NURS-6630N
FINAL EXAM
Latest 8 New Versions
76 Q & A in Each Version, Verified and 100 % Correct|
Best document for Exam
Absolute Satisfaction
, Cours
e NURS-6630N
Test
Week 11 Final Exam
Question 1
0 out of 1 points
A patient diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder has been
taking a high-dose SSRI and is participating in therapy twice a week.
He reports an inability to carry out responsibilities due to consistent
interferences of his obsessions and compulsions. The PMHNP
knows that the next step would be which of the following?
Selected Answer: B.
Decrease his SSRI and add an MAOI.
Question 2
0 out of 1 points
Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to
treating patients for impulsive aggression?
Selected B.
Answer: Atypical antipsychotics can increase subcortical
dopaminergic stimulation.
Question 3
, 1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP evaluates a patient presenting with symptoms of
dementia. Before the PMHNP considers treatment options, the
patient must be assessed for other possible causes of dementia.
Which of the following answers addresses both possible other causes
of dementia and a rational treatment option for Dementia?
Selected B.
Answer: Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, adrenal
insufficiency, hyperparathyroidism
Possible treatment option: donepezil
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
An 80-year-old female patient diagnosed with Stage II Alzheimer’s
has a history of irritable bowel syndrome. Which cholinergic drug
may be the best choice for treatment given the patient’s
gastrointestinal problems?
Selected Answer: A.
Donepezil (Aricept)
Question 5
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is teaching parents about their child’s new prescription
for Ritalin. What will the PMHNP include in the teaching?
Selected Answer: D.
There will be continued effects into the evening.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP prescribes gabapentin (Neurontin) for a patient’s
