NUR 3524 Exam 4: Adult Health - Chronic and
Transitional Care Verified & Updated
Questions and Answers - Rasmussen
University
1. A patient with HIV has a CD4+ T-cell count of 180 cells/mm3. How should the
nurse interpret this finding?
A. The patient is in the acute stage of HIV infection.
B. The patient’s immune system is functioning normally.
C. The patient has met the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.
D. The patient is at low risk for opportunistic infections.
Answer: C
Explanation: A CD4+ T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 is one of the clinical criteria for a
diagnosis of AIDS regardless of the presence of opportunistic infections.
2. Which precaution should the nurse implement for a patient undergoing
chemotherapy who is in a period of neutropenia?
A. Encourage the patient to eat fresh salads and raw fruits.
B. Place fresh flowers in the patient’s room to improve mood.
C. Instruct all visitors to perform hand hygiene before entering.
D. Perform frequent rectal temperatures to monitor for fever.
Answer: C
Explanation: Hand hygiene is the most important measure to prevent infection in a
neutropenic patient; fresh plants and raw foods are avoided due to the risk of bacteria and
fungi.
,3. A patient is considering hospice care. What is the primary requirement for
eligibility?
A. The patient must have a diagnosis of cancer.
B. The patient must be over the age of 65.
C. A physician must certify a life expectancy of 6 months or less.
D. The patient must agree to continue curative treatments.
Answer: C
Explanation: Hospice eligibility generally requires a terminal diagnosis with a prognosis of
6 months or less if the disease runs its normal course.
4. A patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is prescribed
Hydroxychloroquine. Which teaching is most important?
A. Avoid all dairy products while taking this medication.
B. Take the medication only when symptoms are severe.
C. Expect the urine to turn a bright orange color.
D. Schedule an eye examination every 6 to 12 months.
Answer: D
Explanation: Hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal toxicity, so regular ophthalmologic
exams are essential for early detection of eye damage.
5. A patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) reports significant morning stiffness.
Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Apply ice packs to all joints immediately upon waking.
B. Take a warm shower or bath after getting out of bed.
C. Avoid moving the joints until the stiffness goes away.
D. Perform high-impact aerobics to loosen the joints.
Answer: B
Explanation: Heat helps relieve the stiffness associated with RA; a warm shower or warm
moist compresses are standard recommendations.
, 6. What is the definitive method used to diagnose a malignant tumor?
A. Tissue biopsy and histological examination
B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
C. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan
D. Tumor marker blood tests
Answer: A
Explanation: While imaging and markers suggest cancer, only a biopsy providing a tissue
sample for microscopic analysis can definitively confirm malignancy.
7. What is a primary difference between palliative care and hospice care?
A. Palliative care is only for patients who are actively dying.
B. Palliative care requires a 6-month life expectancy prognosis.
C. Hospice care focuses on curative treatments and symptom management.
D. Palliative care can be received at any stage of a serious illness.
Answer: D
Explanation: Palliative care can be initiated at the time of diagnosis and provided
alongside curative treatment, whereas hospice is for end-of-life care when curative
treatment has stopped.
8. A patient is experiencing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Which
intervention is most effective?
A. Administering prescribed antiemetics before the treatment starts.
B. Withholding all fluids for 12 hours before treatment.
C. Giving antiemetics only when the patient begins to vomit.
D. Providing a large, high-protein meal before chemotherapy.
Answer: A
Explanation: Prophylactic administration of antiemetics (e.g., serotonin antagonists) is the
most effective way to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea.
Transitional Care Verified & Updated
Questions and Answers - Rasmussen
University
1. A patient with HIV has a CD4+ T-cell count of 180 cells/mm3. How should the
nurse interpret this finding?
A. The patient is in the acute stage of HIV infection.
B. The patient’s immune system is functioning normally.
C. The patient has met the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.
D. The patient is at low risk for opportunistic infections.
Answer: C
Explanation: A CD4+ T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 is one of the clinical criteria for a
diagnosis of AIDS regardless of the presence of opportunistic infections.
2. Which precaution should the nurse implement for a patient undergoing
chemotherapy who is in a period of neutropenia?
A. Encourage the patient to eat fresh salads and raw fruits.
B. Place fresh flowers in the patient’s room to improve mood.
C. Instruct all visitors to perform hand hygiene before entering.
D. Perform frequent rectal temperatures to monitor for fever.
Answer: C
Explanation: Hand hygiene is the most important measure to prevent infection in a
neutropenic patient; fresh plants and raw foods are avoided due to the risk of bacteria and
fungi.
,3. A patient is considering hospice care. What is the primary requirement for
eligibility?
A. The patient must have a diagnosis of cancer.
B. The patient must be over the age of 65.
C. A physician must certify a life expectancy of 6 months or less.
D. The patient must agree to continue curative treatments.
Answer: C
Explanation: Hospice eligibility generally requires a terminal diagnosis with a prognosis of
6 months or less if the disease runs its normal course.
4. A patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is prescribed
Hydroxychloroquine. Which teaching is most important?
A. Avoid all dairy products while taking this medication.
B. Take the medication only when symptoms are severe.
C. Expect the urine to turn a bright orange color.
D. Schedule an eye examination every 6 to 12 months.
Answer: D
Explanation: Hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal toxicity, so regular ophthalmologic
exams are essential for early detection of eye damage.
5. A patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) reports significant morning stiffness.
Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Apply ice packs to all joints immediately upon waking.
B. Take a warm shower or bath after getting out of bed.
C. Avoid moving the joints until the stiffness goes away.
D. Perform high-impact aerobics to loosen the joints.
Answer: B
Explanation: Heat helps relieve the stiffness associated with RA; a warm shower or warm
moist compresses are standard recommendations.
, 6. What is the definitive method used to diagnose a malignant tumor?
A. Tissue biopsy and histological examination
B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
C. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan
D. Tumor marker blood tests
Answer: A
Explanation: While imaging and markers suggest cancer, only a biopsy providing a tissue
sample for microscopic analysis can definitively confirm malignancy.
7. What is a primary difference between palliative care and hospice care?
A. Palliative care is only for patients who are actively dying.
B. Palliative care requires a 6-month life expectancy prognosis.
C. Hospice care focuses on curative treatments and symptom management.
D. Palliative care can be received at any stage of a serious illness.
Answer: D
Explanation: Palliative care can be initiated at the time of diagnosis and provided
alongside curative treatment, whereas hospice is for end-of-life care when curative
treatment has stopped.
8. A patient is experiencing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Which
intervention is most effective?
A. Administering prescribed antiemetics before the treatment starts.
B. Withholding all fluids for 12 hours before treatment.
C. Giving antiemetics only when the patient begins to vomit.
D. Providing a large, high-protein meal before chemotherapy.
Answer: A
Explanation: Prophylactic administration of antiemetics (e.g., serotonin antagonists) is the
most effective way to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea.
