NUR 3524 Final Exam: Adult Health - Chronic
and Transitional Care Verified & Updated
Questions and Answers - Rasmussen
University
1. A nurse is educating a patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
(COPD) about oxygen therapy. Why is it generally recommended to keep oxygen
saturation between 88% and 92% for these patients?
A. To prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension.
B. To avoid suppressing the patient’s hypoxic drive to breathe.
C. To reduce the risk of secondary polycythemia.
D. To minimize the formation of free radicals in lung tissue.
Answer: B
Explanation: In some patients with chronic CO2 retention, the respiratory center becomes
less sensitive to CO2, and low oxygen levels (hypoxic drive) stimulate breathing. Excessive
oxygen can suppress this drive, leading to respiratory failure.
2. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of right-sided heart failure?
A. Crackles upon lung auscultation.
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
C. Productive cough with frothy sputum.
D. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.
Answer: D
Explanation: Right-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the systemic
circulation, leading to peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and jugular venous distention. The
other options are signs of left-sided heart failure.
,3. A patient with Type 2 Diabetes is being discharged. The nurse explains that
the Glycated Hemoglobin (HbA1c) test measures average blood glucose over
which period?
A. The previous 2 to 4 weeks.
B. The previous 2 to 3 months.
C. The previous 6 months.
D. The previous 24 hours.
Answer: B
Explanation: HbA1c reflects the average blood glucose level over the lifespan of a red
blood cell, which is approximately 120 days or 2 to 3 months.
4. In the context of transitional care, what is the primary goal of ‘medication
reconciliation’ during discharge?
A. To ensure the patient can afford all prescribed medications.
B. To provide the patient with a list of pharmacies that stock the drugs.
C. To explain the side effects of every medication the patient takes.
D. To prevent errors such as omissions, duplications, or drug interactions.
Answer: D
Explanation: Medication reconciliation is the process of comparing a patient’s medication
orders to all the medications that the patient has been taking to avoid errors during
transitions in care.
5. A patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is prescribed a low-protein diet.
What is the rationale for this intervention?
A. To reduce the workload on the heart.
B. To increase the glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
C. To prevent the loss of albumin in the urine.
D. To minimize the accumulation of nitrogenous waste products.
Answer: D
, Explanation: In CKD, the kidneys cannot efficiently excrete urea and other nitrogenous
wastes produced by protein metabolism. Limiting protein intake helps reduce the buildup
of these toxins.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient with Parkinson’s Disease. Which ‘classic’ triad of
symptoms should the nurse expect?
A. Tachycardia, hypertension, and diaphoresis.
B. Memory loss, confusion, and agitation.
C. Ataxia, diplopia, and dysarthria.
D. Tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Answer: D
Explanation: Parkinson’s Disease is characterized by the motor triad of resting tremor,
muscle rigidity, and slowness of movement (bradykinesia).
7. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient experiencing
‘sundowning’ associated with dementia?
A. Increasing evening caffeine intake to maintain alertness.
B. Limiting daytime physical activity to ensure evening tiredness.
C. Applying physical restraints at sunset to prevent wandering.
D. Providing a quiet, well-lit environment in the late afternoon.
Answer: D
Explanation: Sundowning is characterized by increased confusion and agitation in the late
afternoon/evening. Providing a calm, brightly lit environment can help reduce
disorientation.
and Transitional Care Verified & Updated
Questions and Answers - Rasmussen
University
1. A nurse is educating a patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
(COPD) about oxygen therapy. Why is it generally recommended to keep oxygen
saturation between 88% and 92% for these patients?
A. To prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension.
B. To avoid suppressing the patient’s hypoxic drive to breathe.
C. To reduce the risk of secondary polycythemia.
D. To minimize the formation of free radicals in lung tissue.
Answer: B
Explanation: In some patients with chronic CO2 retention, the respiratory center becomes
less sensitive to CO2, and low oxygen levels (hypoxic drive) stimulate breathing. Excessive
oxygen can suppress this drive, leading to respiratory failure.
2. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of right-sided heart failure?
A. Crackles upon lung auscultation.
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
C. Productive cough with frothy sputum.
D. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.
Answer: D
Explanation: Right-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the systemic
circulation, leading to peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and jugular venous distention. The
other options are signs of left-sided heart failure.
,3. A patient with Type 2 Diabetes is being discharged. The nurse explains that
the Glycated Hemoglobin (HbA1c) test measures average blood glucose over
which period?
A. The previous 2 to 4 weeks.
B. The previous 2 to 3 months.
C. The previous 6 months.
D. The previous 24 hours.
Answer: B
Explanation: HbA1c reflects the average blood glucose level over the lifespan of a red
blood cell, which is approximately 120 days or 2 to 3 months.
4. In the context of transitional care, what is the primary goal of ‘medication
reconciliation’ during discharge?
A. To ensure the patient can afford all prescribed medications.
B. To provide the patient with a list of pharmacies that stock the drugs.
C. To explain the side effects of every medication the patient takes.
D. To prevent errors such as omissions, duplications, or drug interactions.
Answer: D
Explanation: Medication reconciliation is the process of comparing a patient’s medication
orders to all the medications that the patient has been taking to avoid errors during
transitions in care.
5. A patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is prescribed a low-protein diet.
What is the rationale for this intervention?
A. To reduce the workload on the heart.
B. To increase the glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
C. To prevent the loss of albumin in the urine.
D. To minimize the accumulation of nitrogenous waste products.
Answer: D
, Explanation: In CKD, the kidneys cannot efficiently excrete urea and other nitrogenous
wastes produced by protein metabolism. Limiting protein intake helps reduce the buildup
of these toxins.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient with Parkinson’s Disease. Which ‘classic’ triad of
symptoms should the nurse expect?
A. Tachycardia, hypertension, and diaphoresis.
B. Memory loss, confusion, and agitation.
C. Ataxia, diplopia, and dysarthria.
D. Tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Answer: D
Explanation: Parkinson’s Disease is characterized by the motor triad of resting tremor,
muscle rigidity, and slowness of movement (bradykinesia).
7. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient experiencing
‘sundowning’ associated with dementia?
A. Increasing evening caffeine intake to maintain alertness.
B. Limiting daytime physical activity to ensure evening tiredness.
C. Applying physical restraints at sunset to prevent wandering.
D. Providing a quiet, well-lit environment in the late afternoon.
Answer: D
Explanation: Sundowning is characterized by increased confusion and agitation in the late
afternoon/evening. Providing a calm, brightly lit environment can help reduce
disorientation.
