1
NR507 NP Midterm Exam 2026/2027
Actual Exam | 100% Correct Answers |
Verified Latest Update | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Cellular Biology and Genetics
Q1: Adrenal Medulla Tumor Pathophysiology
A patient has a tumor that destroys the cells of the adrenal medulla. As a result, you would expect
a decrease in which of the following responses?
A. Fight-or-flight response [CORRECT]
B. Rest-and-digest response
C. Long-term stress response via cortisol
D. Blood glucose regulation via insulin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine),
which mediate the sympathetic "fight-or-flight" response. Destruction of the adrenal medulla
would impair this response. Option B is mediated by the parasympathetic nervous system. Option
C involves the adrenal cortex and cortisol. Option D involves the pancreas and insulin.
Q2: Cellular Adaptation to Hypoxia
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops polycythemia. Which
cellular adaptation is responsible for this change?
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Increased erythropoietin production [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chronic hypoxia in COPD stimulates the kidneys to produce erythropoietin, which
increases red blood cell production (polycythemia). Options A, B, and C describe structural
adaptations of cells or tissues, not systemic responses to hypoxia.
,2
Q3: Genetic Mutation and Disease
A patient presents with symptoms of sickle cell disease. This condition is caused by a mutation
in which gene?
A. CFTR
B. HBB (beta-globin) [CORRECT]
C. BRCA1
D. DMD
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sickle cell disease results from a point mutation in the HBB gene, leading to
abnormal hemoglobin (HbS) and sickling of red blood cells. Option A is associated with cystic
fibrosis. Option C is associated with breast cancer. Option D is associated with Duchenne
muscular dystrophy.
Q4: Mitochondrial Dysfunction
A patient with a history of mitochondrial myopathy presents with muscle weakness and lactic
acidosis. Which cellular process is most likely impaired?
A. Glycolysis
B. Oxidative phosphorylation [CORRECT]
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Lipolysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mitochondrial myopathies impair oxidative phosphorylation, the process by which
mitochondria generate ATP. This leads to muscle weakness and lactic acidosis due to anaerobic
metabolism. Options A, C, and D are not primarily mitochondrial processes.
Q5: Oncogene Activation
A patient is diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) associated with the Philadelphia
chromosome. This chromosomal abnormality results in the activation of which oncogene?
A. RAS
B. MYC
C. BCR-ABL [CORRECT]
D. HER2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Philadelphia chromosome in CML results from a translocation between
,3
chromosomes 9 and 22, creating the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which encodes a constitutively active
tyrosine kinase that drives leukemia. Options A, B, and D are associated with other cancers.
Q6: Apoptosis vs. Necrosis
A patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) experiences irreversible cell death in the affected
myocardium. This process is best described as:
A. Apoptosis
B. Necrosis [CORRECT]
C. Metaplasia
D. Dysplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute MI causes ischemic necrosis (uncontrolled cell death due to hypoxia), not
apoptosis (programmed cell death). Options C and D describe reversible cellular adaptations.
Q7: Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
A patient with a family history of Huntington's disease asks about the inheritance pattern.
Huntington's disease is inherited in which pattern?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant [CORRECT]
C. X-linked recessive
D. Mitochondrial
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Huntington's disease is autosomal dominant, meaning a single copy of the mutated
gene (HTT) is sufficient to cause the disease. Options A, C, and D describe other inheritance
patterns.
Q8: Cellular Senescence
Aging is associated with the accumulation of senescent cells, which contribute to age-related
diseases. Senescent cells are characterized by:
A. Increased proliferative capacity
B. Resistance to apoptosis and secretion of pro-inflammatory factors [CORRECT]
C. Enhanced DNA repair
D. Decreased metabolic activity
, 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Senescent cells undergo permanent cell cycle arrest but remain metabolically active,
secreting pro-inflammatory cytokines, chemokines, and proteases (senescence-associated
secretory phenotype, SASP). Options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Q9: Epigenetic Modifications
Epigenetic modifications, such as DNA methylation and histone acetylation, can influence gene
expression without altering the DNA sequence. Which of the following is an example of an
epigenetic change associated with cancer?
A. BRCA1 mutation
B. Hypermethylation of tumor suppressor genes [CORRECT]
C. Chromosomal translocation
D. Point mutation in TP53
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypermethylation of tumor suppressor gene promoters silences their expression,
contributing to carcinogenesis. Option A is a genetic mutation. Option C is a chromosomal
abnormality. Option D is a genetic mutation.
Q10: Stem Cell Differentiation
Embryonic stem cells are characterized by:
A. Terminal differentiation
B. Pluripotency [CORRECT]
C. Unipotency
D. Senescence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, meaning they can differentiate into any cell
type in the body. Options A, C, and D describe other cellular states.
Q11: Telomere Shortening
Telomere shortening is associated with:
A. Increased cellular proliferation
B. Cellular aging and senescence [CORRECT]
C. Enhanced DNA repair
D. Oncogene activation
NR507 NP Midterm Exam 2026/2027
Actual Exam | 100% Correct Answers |
Verified Latest Update | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Cellular Biology and Genetics
Q1: Adrenal Medulla Tumor Pathophysiology
A patient has a tumor that destroys the cells of the adrenal medulla. As a result, you would expect
a decrease in which of the following responses?
A. Fight-or-flight response [CORRECT]
B. Rest-and-digest response
C. Long-term stress response via cortisol
D. Blood glucose regulation via insulin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine),
which mediate the sympathetic "fight-or-flight" response. Destruction of the adrenal medulla
would impair this response. Option B is mediated by the parasympathetic nervous system. Option
C involves the adrenal cortex and cortisol. Option D involves the pancreas and insulin.
Q2: Cellular Adaptation to Hypoxia
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops polycythemia. Which
cellular adaptation is responsible for this change?
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Increased erythropoietin production [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chronic hypoxia in COPD stimulates the kidneys to produce erythropoietin, which
increases red blood cell production (polycythemia). Options A, B, and C describe structural
adaptations of cells or tissues, not systemic responses to hypoxia.
,2
Q3: Genetic Mutation and Disease
A patient presents with symptoms of sickle cell disease. This condition is caused by a mutation
in which gene?
A. CFTR
B. HBB (beta-globin) [CORRECT]
C. BRCA1
D. DMD
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sickle cell disease results from a point mutation in the HBB gene, leading to
abnormal hemoglobin (HbS) and sickling of red blood cells. Option A is associated with cystic
fibrosis. Option C is associated with breast cancer. Option D is associated with Duchenne
muscular dystrophy.
Q4: Mitochondrial Dysfunction
A patient with a history of mitochondrial myopathy presents with muscle weakness and lactic
acidosis. Which cellular process is most likely impaired?
A. Glycolysis
B. Oxidative phosphorylation [CORRECT]
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Lipolysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mitochondrial myopathies impair oxidative phosphorylation, the process by which
mitochondria generate ATP. This leads to muscle weakness and lactic acidosis due to anaerobic
metabolism. Options A, C, and D are not primarily mitochondrial processes.
Q5: Oncogene Activation
A patient is diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) associated with the Philadelphia
chromosome. This chromosomal abnormality results in the activation of which oncogene?
A. RAS
B. MYC
C. BCR-ABL [CORRECT]
D. HER2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Philadelphia chromosome in CML results from a translocation between
,3
chromosomes 9 and 22, creating the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which encodes a constitutively active
tyrosine kinase that drives leukemia. Options A, B, and D are associated with other cancers.
Q6: Apoptosis vs. Necrosis
A patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) experiences irreversible cell death in the affected
myocardium. This process is best described as:
A. Apoptosis
B. Necrosis [CORRECT]
C. Metaplasia
D. Dysplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute MI causes ischemic necrosis (uncontrolled cell death due to hypoxia), not
apoptosis (programmed cell death). Options C and D describe reversible cellular adaptations.
Q7: Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
A patient with a family history of Huntington's disease asks about the inheritance pattern.
Huntington's disease is inherited in which pattern?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant [CORRECT]
C. X-linked recessive
D. Mitochondrial
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Huntington's disease is autosomal dominant, meaning a single copy of the mutated
gene (HTT) is sufficient to cause the disease. Options A, C, and D describe other inheritance
patterns.
Q8: Cellular Senescence
Aging is associated with the accumulation of senescent cells, which contribute to age-related
diseases. Senescent cells are characterized by:
A. Increased proliferative capacity
B. Resistance to apoptosis and secretion of pro-inflammatory factors [CORRECT]
C. Enhanced DNA repair
D. Decreased metabolic activity
, 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Senescent cells undergo permanent cell cycle arrest but remain metabolically active,
secreting pro-inflammatory cytokines, chemokines, and proteases (senescence-associated
secretory phenotype, SASP). Options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Q9: Epigenetic Modifications
Epigenetic modifications, such as DNA methylation and histone acetylation, can influence gene
expression without altering the DNA sequence. Which of the following is an example of an
epigenetic change associated with cancer?
A. BRCA1 mutation
B. Hypermethylation of tumor suppressor genes [CORRECT]
C. Chromosomal translocation
D. Point mutation in TP53
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypermethylation of tumor suppressor gene promoters silences their expression,
contributing to carcinogenesis. Option A is a genetic mutation. Option C is a chromosomal
abnormality. Option D is a genetic mutation.
Q10: Stem Cell Differentiation
Embryonic stem cells are characterized by:
A. Terminal differentiation
B. Pluripotency [CORRECT]
C. Unipotency
D. Senescence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, meaning they can differentiate into any cell
type in the body. Options A, C, and D describe other cellular states.
Q11: Telomere Shortening
Telomere shortening is associated with:
A. Increased cellular proliferation
B. Cellular aging and senescence [CORRECT]
C. Enhanced DNA repair
D. Oncogene activation
