NBCE Part 1 General Anatomy Exam Study Guide 2026 |
Complete Chiropractic Boards Prep, Detailed Anatomy
Notes, High-Yield Concepts, Practice Questions & Answers,
Diagrams, and Proven Strategies to Pass NBCE Part 1 on
First Attempt
Question 1: Which anatomical plane divides the body into equal right and left
halves?
A. Coronal plane
B. Transverse plane
C. Sagittal plane
D. Midsagittal plane
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Midsagittal plane
Rationale: The midsagittal (or median) plane is the specific sagittal plane that
passes through the midline of the body, dividing it into equal right and left halves.
While all midsagittal planes are sagittal, not all sagittal planes are midsagittal, as
parasagittal planes divide the body into unequal right and left sections.
Question 2: Which term describes a structure located closer to the point of
attachment or origin?
A. Distal
B. Proximal
C. Superior
D. Medial
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Proximal
Rationale: In anatomical terminology, "proximal" refers to a position nearer to the
point of attachment or trunk of the body, particularly used when describing limbs.
"Distal" indicates farther from the point of attachment, while superior and medial
refer to directional relationships unrelated to attachment points.
Question 3: The movement that decreases the angle between two bones at a
joint is called:
A. Extension
B. Abduction
C. Flexion
D. Rotation
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Flexion
Rationale: Flexion is the anatomical movement that reduces the angle between two
body parts at a joint, such as bending the elbow or knee. Extension increases the
angle, abduction moves a limb away from the midline, and rotation involves
movement around a longitudinal axis.
Question 4: Which bone articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula to
form the shoulder joint?
,A. Clavicle
B. Humerus
C. Radius
D. Sternum
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Humerus
Rationale: The head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity (fossa) of
the scapula to form the glenohumeral joint, commonly known as the shoulder joint.
This is a ball-and-socket synovial joint allowing extensive range of motion.
Question 5: The odontoid process (dens) is a distinctive feature of which
cervical vertebra?
A. C1 (Atlas)
B. C2 (Axis)
C. C3
D. C7
CORRECT ANSWER: B. C2 (Axis)
Rationale: The axis (C2) possesses the odontoid process or dens, a superior
projection that articulates with the anterior arch of the atlas (C1), enabling
rotational movement of the head. The atlas (C1) lacks a body and spinous process,
while C7 is characterized by a long, non-bifid spinous process.
Question 6: Which of the following bones is classified as a sesamoid bone?
A. Scaphoid
B. Patella
C. Talus
D. Calcaneus
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Patella
Rationale: The patella is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body, embedded
within the quadriceps tendon. Sesamoid bones develop within tendons to protect
them from stress and improve mechanical advantage. The scaphoid, talus, and
calcaneus are classified as short bones.
Question 7: The foramen magnum is located in which bone?
A. Sphenoid
B. Temporal
C. Occipital
D. Ethmoid
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Occipital
Rationale: The foramen magnum is a large opening in the occipital bone through
which the spinal cord connects with the medulla oblongata. It also transmits the
vertebral arteries and spinal accessory nerves. The sphenoid, temporal, and
ethmoid bones contain other foramina but not the foramen magnum.
,Question 8: Which suture connects the parietal bones to the occipital bone?
A. Coronal suture
B. Sagittal suture
C. Lambdoid suture
D. Squamous suture
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Lambdoid suture
Rationale: The lambdoid suture is a dense, fibrous connective tissue joint that
connects the two parietal bones with the occipital bone posteriorly. The coronal
suture joins frontal and parietal bones, the sagittal suture unites the parietal bones,
and the squamous suture connects temporal and parietal bones.
Question 9: The acromion process is a feature of which bone?
A. Clavicle
B. Sternum
C. Scapula
D. Humerus
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Scapula
Rationale: The acromion is a bony projection of the scapula that forms the highest
point of the shoulder and articulates with the clavicle to form the acromioclavicular
joint. It serves as an attachment site for the deltoid and trapezius muscles.
Question 10: Which carpal bone articulates directly with the radius to form
the wrist joint?
A. Lunate
B. Scaphoid
C. Both A and B
D. Triquetrum
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Both A and B
Rationale: The radiocarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the distal radius
with the scaphoid and lunate carpal bones. The triquetrum articulates with the
articular disc of the distal radioulnar joint but not directly with the radius in the
primary wrist joint.
Question 11: The greater trochanter is a prominent landmark on which bone?
A. Humerus
B. Femur
C. Tibia
D. Fibula
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Femur
Rationale: The greater trochanter is a large, palpable projection on the proximal
femur that serves as an attachment site for several gluteal and lateral rotator
, muscles. It is an important landmark for intramuscular injections and clinical
assessment of hip pathology.
Question 12: Which rib classification refers to ribs that attach directly to the
sternum via their own costal cartilage?
A. Floating ribs
B. False ribs
C. True ribs
D. Vertebral ribs
CORRECT ANSWER: C. True ribs
Rationale: True ribs (ribs 1-7) attach directly to the sternum through their
individual costal cartilages. False ribs (8-10) attach indirectly via the cartilage of
rib 7, while floating ribs (11-12) have no anterior sternal attachment.
Question 13: The medial malleolus is a feature of which bone?
A. Fibula
B. Talus
C. Tibia
D. Calcaneus
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tibia
Rationale: The medial malleolus is the distal medial projection of the tibia that
forms the inner prominence of the ankle. The lateral malleolus is formed by the
distal fibula. Both malleoli articulate with the talus to stabilize the ankle joint.
Question 14: Which type of joint allows movement in only one plane, such as
the elbow?
A. Ball-and-socket joint
B. Pivot joint
C. Hinge joint
D. Saddle joint
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hinge joint
Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow and interphalangeal joints, permit
movement primarily in one plane (flexion and extension). Ball-and-socket joints
allow multiaxial movement, pivot joints permit rotation, and saddle joints allow
movement in two planes.
Question 15: The intervertebral discs are composed primarily of which type
of cartilage?
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Fibrocartilage
D. Articular cartilage
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fibrocartilage
Complete Chiropractic Boards Prep, Detailed Anatomy
Notes, High-Yield Concepts, Practice Questions & Answers,
Diagrams, and Proven Strategies to Pass NBCE Part 1 on
First Attempt
Question 1: Which anatomical plane divides the body into equal right and left
halves?
A. Coronal plane
B. Transverse plane
C. Sagittal plane
D. Midsagittal plane
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Midsagittal plane
Rationale: The midsagittal (or median) plane is the specific sagittal plane that
passes through the midline of the body, dividing it into equal right and left halves.
While all midsagittal planes are sagittal, not all sagittal planes are midsagittal, as
parasagittal planes divide the body into unequal right and left sections.
Question 2: Which term describes a structure located closer to the point of
attachment or origin?
A. Distal
B. Proximal
C. Superior
D. Medial
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Proximal
Rationale: In anatomical terminology, "proximal" refers to a position nearer to the
point of attachment or trunk of the body, particularly used when describing limbs.
"Distal" indicates farther from the point of attachment, while superior and medial
refer to directional relationships unrelated to attachment points.
Question 3: The movement that decreases the angle between two bones at a
joint is called:
A. Extension
B. Abduction
C. Flexion
D. Rotation
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Flexion
Rationale: Flexion is the anatomical movement that reduces the angle between two
body parts at a joint, such as bending the elbow or knee. Extension increases the
angle, abduction moves a limb away from the midline, and rotation involves
movement around a longitudinal axis.
Question 4: Which bone articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula to
form the shoulder joint?
,A. Clavicle
B. Humerus
C. Radius
D. Sternum
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Humerus
Rationale: The head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity (fossa) of
the scapula to form the glenohumeral joint, commonly known as the shoulder joint.
This is a ball-and-socket synovial joint allowing extensive range of motion.
Question 5: The odontoid process (dens) is a distinctive feature of which
cervical vertebra?
A. C1 (Atlas)
B. C2 (Axis)
C. C3
D. C7
CORRECT ANSWER: B. C2 (Axis)
Rationale: The axis (C2) possesses the odontoid process or dens, a superior
projection that articulates with the anterior arch of the atlas (C1), enabling
rotational movement of the head. The atlas (C1) lacks a body and spinous process,
while C7 is characterized by a long, non-bifid spinous process.
Question 6: Which of the following bones is classified as a sesamoid bone?
A. Scaphoid
B. Patella
C. Talus
D. Calcaneus
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Patella
Rationale: The patella is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body, embedded
within the quadriceps tendon. Sesamoid bones develop within tendons to protect
them from stress and improve mechanical advantage. The scaphoid, talus, and
calcaneus are classified as short bones.
Question 7: The foramen magnum is located in which bone?
A. Sphenoid
B. Temporal
C. Occipital
D. Ethmoid
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Occipital
Rationale: The foramen magnum is a large opening in the occipital bone through
which the spinal cord connects with the medulla oblongata. It also transmits the
vertebral arteries and spinal accessory nerves. The sphenoid, temporal, and
ethmoid bones contain other foramina but not the foramen magnum.
,Question 8: Which suture connects the parietal bones to the occipital bone?
A. Coronal suture
B. Sagittal suture
C. Lambdoid suture
D. Squamous suture
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Lambdoid suture
Rationale: The lambdoid suture is a dense, fibrous connective tissue joint that
connects the two parietal bones with the occipital bone posteriorly. The coronal
suture joins frontal and parietal bones, the sagittal suture unites the parietal bones,
and the squamous suture connects temporal and parietal bones.
Question 9: The acromion process is a feature of which bone?
A. Clavicle
B. Sternum
C. Scapula
D. Humerus
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Scapula
Rationale: The acromion is a bony projection of the scapula that forms the highest
point of the shoulder and articulates with the clavicle to form the acromioclavicular
joint. It serves as an attachment site for the deltoid and trapezius muscles.
Question 10: Which carpal bone articulates directly with the radius to form
the wrist joint?
A. Lunate
B. Scaphoid
C. Both A and B
D. Triquetrum
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Both A and B
Rationale: The radiocarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the distal radius
with the scaphoid and lunate carpal bones. The triquetrum articulates with the
articular disc of the distal radioulnar joint but not directly with the radius in the
primary wrist joint.
Question 11: The greater trochanter is a prominent landmark on which bone?
A. Humerus
B. Femur
C. Tibia
D. Fibula
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Femur
Rationale: The greater trochanter is a large, palpable projection on the proximal
femur that serves as an attachment site for several gluteal and lateral rotator
, muscles. It is an important landmark for intramuscular injections and clinical
assessment of hip pathology.
Question 12: Which rib classification refers to ribs that attach directly to the
sternum via their own costal cartilage?
A. Floating ribs
B. False ribs
C. True ribs
D. Vertebral ribs
CORRECT ANSWER: C. True ribs
Rationale: True ribs (ribs 1-7) attach directly to the sternum through their
individual costal cartilages. False ribs (8-10) attach indirectly via the cartilage of
rib 7, while floating ribs (11-12) have no anterior sternal attachment.
Question 13: The medial malleolus is a feature of which bone?
A. Fibula
B. Talus
C. Tibia
D. Calcaneus
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tibia
Rationale: The medial malleolus is the distal medial projection of the tibia that
forms the inner prominence of the ankle. The lateral malleolus is formed by the
distal fibula. Both malleoli articulate with the talus to stabilize the ankle joint.
Question 14: Which type of joint allows movement in only one plane, such as
the elbow?
A. Ball-and-socket joint
B. Pivot joint
C. Hinge joint
D. Saddle joint
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hinge joint
Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow and interphalangeal joints, permit
movement primarily in one plane (flexion and extension). Ball-and-socket joints
allow multiaxial movement, pivot joints permit rotation, and saddle joints allow
movement in two planes.
Question 15: The intervertebral discs are composed primarily of which type
of cartilage?
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Fibrocartilage
D. Articular cartilage
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fibrocartilage
