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NR 507: Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm Examination Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 125 Questions with Expert Rationales

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NR 507: Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm Examination Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 125 Questions with Expert Rationales

Institution
NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Course
NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

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NR 507: Advanced Pathophysiology

Midterm Examination

Chamberlain University | 2026/2027

125 Questions with Expert Rationales



Instructions
• This examination covers advanced pathophysiology concepts for the midterm.
• Select the single best answer for each question.
• Rationales explain the underlying pathophysiology, mechanisms of disease, and
clinical correlations.




Section 1: Cellular Biology, Genetics, and Immunology
(Questions 1-25)
1. A 52-year-old male is diagnosed with lung cancer. Genetic analysis reveals a
mutation in the KRAS proto-oncogene. Which of the following best describes
the role of proto-oncogenes in normal cellular function?
A. They encode for proteins that inhibit cell division
B. They encode for proteins that promote normal cell growth and division
C. They repair damaged DNA
D. They induce apoptosis in damaged cells

Answer: B
Expert Rationale: Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that regulate cell growth
and division. When mutated, they become oncogenes that drive uncontrolled

,proliferation. KRAS is a proto-oncogene commonly mutated in lung, colon, and
pancreatic cancers.

2. A 28-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has a positive
antinuclear antibody (ANA) test. Which of the following best describes the
pathogenesis of SLE?
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction with IgE-mediated mast cell activation
B. Type II hypersensitivity with antibody-mediated cytotoxicity
C. Type III hypersensitivity with immune complex deposition
D. Type IV hypersensitivity with T-cell mediated tissue destruction

Answer: C
Expert Rationale: SLE is a Type III hypersensitivity reaction characterized by the
formation of immune complexes (autoantibodies bound to self-antigens) that
deposit in small vessels, kidneys, and joints, leading to complement activation and
inflammation.

3. A 6-month-old infant presents with recurrent, severe infections.
Immunologic evaluation reveals absence of T cells and B cells. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Selective IgA deficiency
B. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
C. DiGeorge syndrome
D. Chronic granulomatous disease

Answer: B
Expert Rationale: SCID is characterized by severe defects in both T cell and B cell
development, leading to profound immunodeficiency. Infants present with recurrent,
life-threatening infections early in life.

4. A 62-year-old male with chronic hepatitis B develops hepatocellular
carcinoma. Which of the following best describes the role of chronic
inflammation in carcinogenesis?
A. Inflammation directly causes mutations in tumor suppressor genes
B. Inflammatory cytokines promote cellular proliferation and angiogenesis while
inhibiting apoptosis
C. Inflammation suppresses the immune system's ability to detect cancer cells
D. Inflammation causes telomere shortening leading to genomic instability

Answer: B
Expert Rationale: Chronic inflammation creates a microenvironment rich in
cytokines (IL-6, TNF-α), growth factors, and reactive oxygen species that promote
cellular proliferation, inhibit apoptosis, and stimulate angiogenesis, contributing to
malignant transformation.

,5. A 70-year-old female is diagnosed with anemia of chronic disease. Which of
the following best describes the pathophysiology of this condition?
A. Decreased erythropoietin production due to renal failure
B. Impaired iron utilization due to hepcidin upregulation
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency due to malabsorption
D. Hemolysis due to autoantibody formation

Answer: B
Expert Rationale: Anemia of chronic disease is mediated by hepcidin, an acute-
phase protein upregulated in inflammatory states. Hepcidin blocks iron export from
macrophages and enterocytes, leading to functional iron deficiency despite adequate
iron stores.

6. A 35-year-old female with a family history of breast and ovarian cancer
undergoes genetic testing and is found to have a BRCA1 mutation. Which of
the following best describes the function of BRCA1 in normal cells?
A. Promotes cell cycle progression through the G1/S checkpoint
B. Facilitates DNA double-strand break repair via homologous recombination
C. Prevents angiogenesis by inhibiting vascular endothelial growth factor
D. Activates telomerase to maintain chromosomal integrity

Answer: B
Expert Rationale: BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumor suppressor genes involved in
DNA double-strand break repair through homologous recombination. Mutations
impair DNA repair, leading to genomic instability and increased cancer risk.

7. A 25-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with diabetic ketoacidosis
(DKA). Which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms contributes to the
development of DKA?
A. Increased insulin secretion leading to cellular glucose uptake
B. Decreased counter-regulatory hormones (glucagon, cortisol, epinephrine)
C. Increased lipolysis and ketogenesis due to absolute insulin deficiency
D. Enhanced peripheral glucose utilization

Answer: C
Expert Rationale: In type 1 diabetes, absolute insulin deficiency leads to
unopposed counter-regulatory hormones (glucagon, cortisol, epinephrine), which
promote lipolysis and ketogenesis, resulting in ketone body accumulation and
metabolic acidosis.

8. A 68-year-old male is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which of the
following laboratory findings is most characteristic of this condition?
A. Elevated serum ferritin
B. Monoclonal spike on serum protein electrophoresis

, C. Decreased serum calcium
D. Positive direct Coombs test

Answer: B
Expert Rationale: Multiple myeloma is characterized by malignant plasma cell
proliferation producing a monoclonal immunoglobulin (M protein), which appears as
a monoclonal spike (M spike) on serum protein electrophoresis.

9. A 42-year-old female with Hashimoto's thyroiditis presents with fatigue,
weight gain, and cold intolerance. Which of the following best describes the
pathogenesis of Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
A. Autoimmune destruction of thyroid tissue by T cells and autoantibodies
B. Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) binding to TSH receptors
C. Viral infection causing transient thyroid inflammation
D. Iodine deficiency leading to compensatory goiter

Answer: A
Expert Rationale: Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder
characterized by T cell-mediated destruction of thyroid follicles and autoantibodies
(anti-thyroperoxidase, anti-thyroglobulin), leading to progressive hypothyroidism.

10. A 55-year-old male with a history of alcohol use disorder presents with
jaundice and ascites. Liver biopsy reveals micronodular cirrhosis. Which of the
following best explains the development of ascites in cirrhosis?
A. Decreased hepatic production of albumin leading to decreased plasma oncotic
pressure
B. Increased hepatic production of clotting factors
C. Decreased portal venous pressure
D. Increased bile acid production

Answer: A
Expert Rationale: Cirrhosis leads to decreased hepatic synthetic function,
resulting in hypoalbuminemia, which reduces plasma oncotic pressure. Additionally,
portal hypertension increases hydrostatic pressure, contributing to ascites formation.

11. A 60-year-old female is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which of the
following best describes the pathophysiology of this condition?
A. Autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction
B. Demyelination of peripheral nerves
C. Impaired release of acetylcholine from presynaptic neurons
D. Degeneration of motor neurons in the spinal cord

Answer: A
Expert Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by

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NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Course
NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

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