NURS 5334 Neuro Exam 2026| Actual
Exam Questions and Correct Answers
1. Carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) is prescribed for a client with Parkinson's disease. The nurse
monitors the client for side/adverse effects to the medication. Which finding indicates that the
client is experiencing an adverse effect?
A) Pruritus
B) Tachycardia
C) Hypertension
D) Impaired voluntary movements
Correct Answer: D) Impaired voluntary movements.
Explanation: Dyskinesias (impaired voluntary movements) are a common dose-related adverse
effect of carbidopa-levodopa therapy in Parkinson’s disease.
2. The home health nurse visits a client who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for control of
seizures. During the assessment, the nurse notes that the client is taking birth control pills. Which
information should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) Pregnancy should be avoided while taking phenytoin
B) The client may stop the medication if it is causing severe gastrointestinal effects
C) There is the potential of decreased effectiveness of birth control pills while taking phenytoin
D) There is the increased risk of thrombophlebitis while taking phenytoin and birth control pills
together
Correct Answer: C) There is the potential of decreased effectiveness of birth control pills while
taking phenytoin.
Explanation: Phenytoin induces hepatic enzymes and can reduce the effectiveness of oral
contraceptives.
3. The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who has been diagnosed with
Bell's palsy. The client has been taking acetaminophen (Tylenol), and acetaminophen overdose is
suspected. Which antidote should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed?
A) Pentostatin (Nipent)
,B) Auranofin (Ridaura)
C) Fludarabine (Fludara)
D) Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
Correct Answer: D) Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
Explanation: Acetylcysteine is the specific antidote used to treat acetaminophen overdose.
4. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) has been prescribed for a client to treat pain. Which are
side/adverse effects of this medication? Select all that apply.
A) Diarrhea
B) Tremors
C) Drowsiness
D) Hypotension
E) Urinary frequency
F) Increased respiratory rate
Correct Answer: B, C, D (Tremors, Drowsiness, Hypotension).
Explanation: Common side effects of meperidine include CNS effects (drowsiness, tremors) and
cardiovascular effects (hypotension).
5. A client is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) to control seizures. Results of a
phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/mL. Which finding would be expected as a
result of this laboratory result?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Slurred speech
D) No abnormal finding
Correct Answer: C) Slurred speech.
Explanation: Therapeutic phenytoin level is 10–20 mcg/mL. A level of 35 mcg/mL is toxic and
can cause nystagmus, ataxia, and slurred speech.
6. The client arrives at the emergency department complaining of back spasms. The client states,
"I have been taking two to three aspirin every 4 hours for the last week, and it hasn't helped my
back." Since aspirin intoxication is suspected, the nurse should assess the client for which
manifestation?
,A) Tinnitus
B) Diarrhea
C) Constipation
D) Photosensitivity
Correct Answer: A) Tinnitus.
Explanation: Tinnitus is a classic early sign of salicylate (aspirin) toxicity.
7. A client with trigeminal neuralgia is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol), 400 mg
orally daily. Which value indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect to the
medication?
A) Uric acid level, 5 mg/dL
B) Sodium level, 140 mEq/L
C) Blood urea nitrogen level, 15 mg/dL
D) White blood cell count, 3000 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: D) White blood cell count, 3000 cells/mm3.
Explanation: Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression; a low WBC count indicates a
serious adverse effect.
8. The nurse is caring for a client with severe back pain. Codeine sulfate has been prescribed for
the client. Specific to this medication, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of
care while the client is taking this medication?
A) Monitor radial pulse
B) Monitor bowel activity
C) Monitor apical heart rate
D) Monitor peripheral pulses
Correct Answer: B) Monitor bowel activity.
Explanation: Opioids such as codeine commonly cause constipation; bowel activity must be
monitored.
9. The nurse has given medication instructions to a client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which
statement indicates that the client has an adequate understanding of the instructions?
A) "Alcohol is not contraindicated while taking this medication."
, B) "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing."
C) "The medication dose may be self-adjusted, depending on side effects."
D) "The morning dose of the medication should be taken before a serum drug level is drawn."
Correct Answer: B) "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing."
Explanation: Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia; meticulous oral hygiene helps prevent this.
10. A client with myasthenia gravis has become increasingly weaker. The health care provider
prepares to identify whether the client is reacting to an overdose of the medication (cholinergic
crisis) or an increasing severity of the disease (myasthenic crisis). An injection of edrophonium
is administered. Which finding would indicate that the client is in cholinergic crisis?
A) No change in the condition
B) Complaints of muscle spasms
C) An improvement of the weakness
D) A temporary worsening of the condition
Correct Answer: D) A temporary worsening of the condition.
Explanation: In cholinergic crisis, edrophonium worsens symptoms; in myasthenic crisis,
symptoms improve.
11. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken daily
for the relief of generalized discomfort. Which laboratory value would indicate toxicity
associated with the medication?
A) Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
B) Prothrombin time of 11.8 seconds
C) Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL
D) Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: C) Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL.
Explanation: Acetaminophen toxicity causes hepatotoxicity, elevating bilirubin levels.
12. The nurse is caring for a client receiving mannitol (Osmitrol) via intravenous (IV) infusion. A
vial is sent from the pharmacy, and in preparing the medication the nurse notes that the vial
contains crystals. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Discard the vial
B) Place the vial in warm water
Exam Questions and Correct Answers
1. Carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) is prescribed for a client with Parkinson's disease. The nurse
monitors the client for side/adverse effects to the medication. Which finding indicates that the
client is experiencing an adverse effect?
A) Pruritus
B) Tachycardia
C) Hypertension
D) Impaired voluntary movements
Correct Answer: D) Impaired voluntary movements.
Explanation: Dyskinesias (impaired voluntary movements) are a common dose-related adverse
effect of carbidopa-levodopa therapy in Parkinson’s disease.
2. The home health nurse visits a client who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for control of
seizures. During the assessment, the nurse notes that the client is taking birth control pills. Which
information should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) Pregnancy should be avoided while taking phenytoin
B) The client may stop the medication if it is causing severe gastrointestinal effects
C) There is the potential of decreased effectiveness of birth control pills while taking phenytoin
D) There is the increased risk of thrombophlebitis while taking phenytoin and birth control pills
together
Correct Answer: C) There is the potential of decreased effectiveness of birth control pills while
taking phenytoin.
Explanation: Phenytoin induces hepatic enzymes and can reduce the effectiveness of oral
contraceptives.
3. The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who has been diagnosed with
Bell's palsy. The client has been taking acetaminophen (Tylenol), and acetaminophen overdose is
suspected. Which antidote should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed?
A) Pentostatin (Nipent)
,B) Auranofin (Ridaura)
C) Fludarabine (Fludara)
D) Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
Correct Answer: D) Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
Explanation: Acetylcysteine is the specific antidote used to treat acetaminophen overdose.
4. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) has been prescribed for a client to treat pain. Which are
side/adverse effects of this medication? Select all that apply.
A) Diarrhea
B) Tremors
C) Drowsiness
D) Hypotension
E) Urinary frequency
F) Increased respiratory rate
Correct Answer: B, C, D (Tremors, Drowsiness, Hypotension).
Explanation: Common side effects of meperidine include CNS effects (drowsiness, tremors) and
cardiovascular effects (hypotension).
5. A client is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) to control seizures. Results of a
phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/mL. Which finding would be expected as a
result of this laboratory result?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Slurred speech
D) No abnormal finding
Correct Answer: C) Slurred speech.
Explanation: Therapeutic phenytoin level is 10–20 mcg/mL. A level of 35 mcg/mL is toxic and
can cause nystagmus, ataxia, and slurred speech.
6. The client arrives at the emergency department complaining of back spasms. The client states,
"I have been taking two to three aspirin every 4 hours for the last week, and it hasn't helped my
back." Since aspirin intoxication is suspected, the nurse should assess the client for which
manifestation?
,A) Tinnitus
B) Diarrhea
C) Constipation
D) Photosensitivity
Correct Answer: A) Tinnitus.
Explanation: Tinnitus is a classic early sign of salicylate (aspirin) toxicity.
7. A client with trigeminal neuralgia is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol), 400 mg
orally daily. Which value indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect to the
medication?
A) Uric acid level, 5 mg/dL
B) Sodium level, 140 mEq/L
C) Blood urea nitrogen level, 15 mg/dL
D) White blood cell count, 3000 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: D) White blood cell count, 3000 cells/mm3.
Explanation: Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression; a low WBC count indicates a
serious adverse effect.
8. The nurse is caring for a client with severe back pain. Codeine sulfate has been prescribed for
the client. Specific to this medication, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of
care while the client is taking this medication?
A) Monitor radial pulse
B) Monitor bowel activity
C) Monitor apical heart rate
D) Monitor peripheral pulses
Correct Answer: B) Monitor bowel activity.
Explanation: Opioids such as codeine commonly cause constipation; bowel activity must be
monitored.
9. The nurse has given medication instructions to a client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which
statement indicates that the client has an adequate understanding of the instructions?
A) "Alcohol is not contraindicated while taking this medication."
, B) "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing."
C) "The medication dose may be self-adjusted, depending on side effects."
D) "The morning dose of the medication should be taken before a serum drug level is drawn."
Correct Answer: B) "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing."
Explanation: Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia; meticulous oral hygiene helps prevent this.
10. A client with myasthenia gravis has become increasingly weaker. The health care provider
prepares to identify whether the client is reacting to an overdose of the medication (cholinergic
crisis) or an increasing severity of the disease (myasthenic crisis). An injection of edrophonium
is administered. Which finding would indicate that the client is in cholinergic crisis?
A) No change in the condition
B) Complaints of muscle spasms
C) An improvement of the weakness
D) A temporary worsening of the condition
Correct Answer: D) A temporary worsening of the condition.
Explanation: In cholinergic crisis, edrophonium worsens symptoms; in myasthenic crisis,
symptoms improve.
11. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken daily
for the relief of generalized discomfort. Which laboratory value would indicate toxicity
associated with the medication?
A) Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
B) Prothrombin time of 11.8 seconds
C) Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL
D) Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: C) Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL.
Explanation: Acetaminophen toxicity causes hepatotoxicity, elevating bilirubin levels.
12. The nurse is caring for a client receiving mannitol (Osmitrol) via intravenous (IV) infusion. A
vial is sent from the pharmacy, and in preparing the medication the nurse notes that the vial
contains crystals. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Discard the vial
B) Place the vial in warm water
