BSN 315 HESI Pharmacology Exam |
Comprehensive Review Questions& Answers for
Nursing Students(2026 /2027)
NursePrepHub
This exam is categorized on to below
Category Number of Questions
• Emergency & Critical Care…………………………………… 5
• Topical & Ophthalmic…………………………………………… 4
• Vitamins & Supplements ………………………………………… 3
• End-of-Life Care……………………………………………………… 2
• Contraindications……………………………………………………. 4
• Patient Education & Safety……………………………………… 5
• Medication Calculations …………………………………………… 5
• Other Key Topics ……………………………………………………… 13
• Safe Medication Administration …………………………….6
• Cardiovascular Medications ……………………………………..20
• Antibiotics & Antimicrobials ………………………………………15
• Respiratory Medications……………………………………………… 8
• Endocrine Medications ………………………………………………..9
• Drug Interactions & Herbal Supplements……………………….5
,BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology Practice Exam
Safe Medication Administration & Core Concepts
1. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the correct response?
A. "It works immediately."
B. "It peaks in 4 hours."
C. "It has no peak and lasts 24 hours."
D. "It must be mixed with regular insulin."
Answer: C. Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak, providing
steady glucose control for about 24 hours. It should not be mixed with other
insulins in the same syringe.
2. Which route should the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider prior to
administering a drug with a high first-pass effect?
A. Oral
B. Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. Intravenous
Answer: A. Drugs given orally are absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized by
the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which can significantly reduce their
bioavailability.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient treated with flumazenil (Anexate) for
benzodiazepine toxicity. After administering flumazenil, what will the nurse
carefully assess for?
A. Agitation, confusion, and seizures
B. Cerebral hemorrhage and dystonia
C. Hypertension and renal insufficiency
D. Hypotension, dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest
Answer: A. Flumazenil blocks the action of benzodiazepines. In a patient who has
been taking them long-term, this can precipitate an acute withdrawal syndrome,
including agitation, confusion, and seizures.
,4. A nurse is reviewing a prescription for ketorolac. Which client is at highest risk
for adverse effects?
A. A 30-year-old with migraines
B. A 24-year-old with an ankle sprain
C. A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease
D. A 40-year-old post-appendectomy patient
Answer: C. Older adults and patients with pre-existing kidney disease are at the
highest risk for acute kidney injury and other adverse effects from NSAIDs like
ketorolac.
5. Which vital sign is most important to monitor before administering
hydromorphone?
A. Pulse
B. Blood pressure
C. Respiratory rate
D. Oxygen saturation
Answer: C. Hydromorphone is an opioid that can cause significant respiratory
depression. The respiratory rate should be assessed before each dose to ensure it
is at a safe level (typically at or above 12 breaths/min).
6. A client is prescribed controlled-release oxycodone. Which dosing schedule is
best for the nurse to teach the client?
A. As needed
B. Every 12 hours
C. Every 24 hours
D. Every 4 to 6 hours
Answer: B. Controlled-release opioids are formulated for around-the-clock pain
management and are typically dosed every 12 hours to maintain consistent pain
control. They should not be used on an as-needed basis.
Antibiotics, Antivirals, & Antituberculars
, 7. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis should also receive which
supplement?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
C. Iron
D. Vitamin D
Answer: B. Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is
often co-administered to prevent this side effect.
8. A client receives a new prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro). When teaching
about this drug, which information in the client's history requires special
emphasis by the nurse?
A. Snacks on dairy products such as yogurt or ice cream.
B. Previously had a mild allergic reaction to a cephalosporin.
C. Consumes alcoholic drinks occasionally on the weekends.
D. Works twenty hours a week as a lifeguard at the local pool.
Answer: D. Ciprofloxacin can cause severe photosensitivity. The client should be
instructed to avoid direct sunlight and use high-SPF sunscreen. Working as a
lifeguard poses a significant risk for a severe sunburn reaction.
9. A client with giardiasis is taking metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 grams PO. Which
information should the nurse include in the client's instruction?
A. Notify the clinic of any changes in the color of urine.
B. Avoid overexposure to the sun.
C. Stop the medication after the diarrhea resolves.
D. Take the medication with food.
Answer: D. Metronidazole can cause significant GI upset. Taking it with food can
help minimize this side effect.
10. Rifampin commonly causes which harmless side effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Orange body fluids
Comprehensive Review Questions& Answers for
Nursing Students(2026 /2027)
NursePrepHub
This exam is categorized on to below
Category Number of Questions
• Emergency & Critical Care…………………………………… 5
• Topical & Ophthalmic…………………………………………… 4
• Vitamins & Supplements ………………………………………… 3
• End-of-Life Care……………………………………………………… 2
• Contraindications……………………………………………………. 4
• Patient Education & Safety……………………………………… 5
• Medication Calculations …………………………………………… 5
• Other Key Topics ……………………………………………………… 13
• Safe Medication Administration …………………………….6
• Cardiovascular Medications ……………………………………..20
• Antibiotics & Antimicrobials ………………………………………15
• Respiratory Medications……………………………………………… 8
• Endocrine Medications ………………………………………………..9
• Drug Interactions & Herbal Supplements……………………….5
,BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology Practice Exam
Safe Medication Administration & Core Concepts
1. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the correct response?
A. "It works immediately."
B. "It peaks in 4 hours."
C. "It has no peak and lasts 24 hours."
D. "It must be mixed with regular insulin."
Answer: C. Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak, providing
steady glucose control for about 24 hours. It should not be mixed with other
insulins in the same syringe.
2. Which route should the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider prior to
administering a drug with a high first-pass effect?
A. Oral
B. Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. Intravenous
Answer: A. Drugs given orally are absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized by
the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which can significantly reduce their
bioavailability.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient treated with flumazenil (Anexate) for
benzodiazepine toxicity. After administering flumazenil, what will the nurse
carefully assess for?
A. Agitation, confusion, and seizures
B. Cerebral hemorrhage and dystonia
C. Hypertension and renal insufficiency
D. Hypotension, dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest
Answer: A. Flumazenil blocks the action of benzodiazepines. In a patient who has
been taking them long-term, this can precipitate an acute withdrawal syndrome,
including agitation, confusion, and seizures.
,4. A nurse is reviewing a prescription for ketorolac. Which client is at highest risk
for adverse effects?
A. A 30-year-old with migraines
B. A 24-year-old with an ankle sprain
C. A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease
D. A 40-year-old post-appendectomy patient
Answer: C. Older adults and patients with pre-existing kidney disease are at the
highest risk for acute kidney injury and other adverse effects from NSAIDs like
ketorolac.
5. Which vital sign is most important to monitor before administering
hydromorphone?
A. Pulse
B. Blood pressure
C. Respiratory rate
D. Oxygen saturation
Answer: C. Hydromorphone is an opioid that can cause significant respiratory
depression. The respiratory rate should be assessed before each dose to ensure it
is at a safe level (typically at or above 12 breaths/min).
6. A client is prescribed controlled-release oxycodone. Which dosing schedule is
best for the nurse to teach the client?
A. As needed
B. Every 12 hours
C. Every 24 hours
D. Every 4 to 6 hours
Answer: B. Controlled-release opioids are formulated for around-the-clock pain
management and are typically dosed every 12 hours to maintain consistent pain
control. They should not be used on an as-needed basis.
Antibiotics, Antivirals, & Antituberculars
, 7. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis should also receive which
supplement?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
C. Iron
D. Vitamin D
Answer: B. Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is
often co-administered to prevent this side effect.
8. A client receives a new prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro). When teaching
about this drug, which information in the client's history requires special
emphasis by the nurse?
A. Snacks on dairy products such as yogurt or ice cream.
B. Previously had a mild allergic reaction to a cephalosporin.
C. Consumes alcoholic drinks occasionally on the weekends.
D. Works twenty hours a week as a lifeguard at the local pool.
Answer: D. Ciprofloxacin can cause severe photosensitivity. The client should be
instructed to avoid direct sunlight and use high-SPF sunscreen. Working as a
lifeguard poses a significant risk for a severe sunburn reaction.
9. A client with giardiasis is taking metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 grams PO. Which
information should the nurse include in the client's instruction?
A. Notify the clinic of any changes in the color of urine.
B. Avoid overexposure to the sun.
C. Stop the medication after the diarrhea resolves.
D. Take the medication with food.
Answer: D. Metronidazole can cause significant GI upset. Taking it with food can
help minimize this side effect.
10. Rifampin commonly causes which harmless side effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Orange body fluids
