COMSAE PHASE 2 FORM 110 REVIEW EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS 2026/27 UPDATE

COMSAE PHASE 2 FORM 110




COMSAE PHASE 2 FORM 110 REVIEW EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS 2026/27 UPDATE
1.
A 56-year-old man presents with substernal chest pain that began 1 hour ago while he was
mowing the lawn. The pain is pressure-like and radiates to the left arm. ECG shows ST elevation
in leads II, III, and aVF. Next best step in management?
 A. Give sublingual nitroglycerin
 B. Administer aspirin and activate cardiac catheterization lab

 C. Start IV heparin only

 D. Order a chest X-ray

ANS: B. Administer aspirin and activate cardiac catheterization lab
ST elevation in II, III, aVF = inferior STEMI. Reperfusion therapy is required (PCI if available).
Aspirin reduces mortality. Chest X-ray is not appropriate initially, and nitro is supportive but
not definitive.




2.
A 25-year-old woman presents with fever, dysuria, and flank pain. Urinalysis shows WBC casts.
Best treatment?
 A. Oral nitrofurantoin
 B. IV ceftriaxone

 C. Oral ciprofloxacin

 D. IV vancomycin

,COMSAE PHASE 2 FORM 110




ANS: B. IV ceftriaxone
WBC casts indicate pyelonephritis. Inpatient IV therapy (ceftriaxone) is indicated for systemic
symptoms. Nitrofurantoin is for simple cystitis, not pyelo.




3.
A 60-year-old man with chronic alcohol use presents with confusion, ataxia, and
ophthalmoplegia. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely?
 A. Vitamin B1 (thiamine)

 B. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

 C. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)

 D. Vitamin C

ANS: A. Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
Classic Wernicke encephalopathy triad: confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia →
thiamine deficiency.




4.
A 32-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, constipation, and dry skin. TSH is
elevated. Best treatment?
 A. Methimazole

 B. Levothyroxine

 C. Radioactive iodine

 D. Propranolol

ANS: B. Levothyroxine
Primary hypothyroidism (high TSH). Levothyroxine is standard treatment.




5.

,COMSAE PHASE 2 FORM 110




A 7-year-old boy has a sore throat, fever, and sandpaper-like rash. Rapid strep antigen test is
positive. Best treatment?
 A. Amoxicillin

 B. Azithromycin

 C. Ciprofloxacin

 D. Supportive care only

ANS: A. Amoxicillin
Scarlet fever is caused by Group A strep. Treat with penicillin or amoxicillin.




6.
A 19-year-old male presents after a motorcycle accident. He is hypotensive, has distended
neck veins, and tracheal deviation to the left. Best initial management?
 A. Endotracheal intubation

 B. Needle thoracostomy

 C. Chest tube placement

 D. IV fluids

ANS: B. Needle thoracostomy
Tension pneumothorax → immediate decompression with needle thoracostomy,
followed by chest tube.




7.
A 72-year-old man has a resting tremor, bradykinesia, and cogwheel rigidity. Most appropriate
initial therapy?
 A. Levodopa-carbidopa

 B. Bromocriptine

 C. Selegiline

, COMSAE PHASE 2 FORM 110




 D. Amantadine

ANS: A. Levodopa-carbidopa
Parkinson’s first-line therapy in elderly is levodopa-carbidopa. Dopamine agonists are more
often used in younger patients.




8.
A 22-year-old woman presents with RLQ abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
 A. Ectopic pregnancy

 B. Appendicitis

 C. Ovarian torsion

 D. Pelvic inflammatory disease

ANS: B. Appendicitis
Classic presentation of appendicitis in a young adult with RLQ pain and leukocytosis.




9.
A 3-year-old girl presents with a barking cough, stridor, and hoarseness. Symptoms worsen at
night. Best initial management?
 A. Racemic epinephrine
 B. IV dexamethasone

 C. Humidified air and corticosteroids

 D. Intubation

ANS: C. Humidified air and corticosteroids
Croup (parainfluenza). Mild-moderate cases managed with humidified air + corticosteroids.
Racemic epi for severe cases.