Ohio Advanced Cardiac Life Support
(ACLS) Instructor Practice Exam
Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales|2026 Q&A |
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1. As an AHA ACLS Instructor candidate, which step is required
before teaching your first official AHA ACLS course?
A. Obtain state medical license
B. Be listed in the National Provider Database
C. Complete the online, in-person, and monitoring portions of
the instructor course and receive an Instructor eCard
D. Publish a peer-reviewed paper on resuscitation
Rationale: Candidates must complete online + in-person +
monitoring and receive their Instructor eCard as per AHA
instructor requirements.
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2. During adult cardiac arrest, what is the recommended initial action
for a witnessed sudden collapse with a monitored VF/pulseless VT?
A. Provide 2 minutes of CPR before analyzing rhythm
B. Deliver immediate defibrillation (unsynchronised shock) as
soon as a defibrillator is available
C. Give 1 mg epinephrine IV/IO immediately then defibrillate
D. Intubate before delivering the first shock
Rationale: For witnessed sudden VF/pVT, immediate
defibrillation is prioritized; CPR should be resumed if
defibrillator is not immediately available.
3. Which of the following is the correct epinephrine dosing
during cardiac arrest?
A. 0.1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes
B. 5 mg IV push once
C. 1 mg IV/IO every 3–5 minutes
D. 10 mg IV/IO every 2 minutes
Rationale: AHA ACLS recommends epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO every
3–5 minutes during cardiac arrest.
4. As an ACLS Instructor, which is the most appropriate objective
when teaching high-quality CPR?
A. Memorize medication doses only
B. Focus only on rhythm recognition
C. Demonstrate chest compressions at proper rate, depth, full recoil
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and minimal interruptions
D. Teach passive oxygenation techniques exclusively
Rationale: High-quality CPR emphasizes rate (100–120/min),
depth (~2–2.4 in adult), full recoil and minimal interruptions.
5. For a patient in pulseless VF/pVT, after delivering the first shock
and immediately resuming CPR, when should you administer the first
dose of epinephrine if indicated?
A. After the third shock only
B. As soon as possible during CPR, usually after the first shock
C. Only if rhythm converts to asystole
D. Epinephrine is contraindicated in VF/pVT
Rationale: Epinephrine should be given as soon as feasible during
ongoing CPR for non-shockable and also in shockable rhythms if
ROSC not achieved.
6. Which medication is recommended for refractory VF/pulseless
VT after unsuccessful shocks and epinephrine administration?
A. Lidocaine 20 mg/kg bolus
B. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO bolus (first dose)
C. Adenosine 6 mg IV bolus
D. Procainamide 1 g IV push
Rationale: Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is recommended as first
antiarrhythmic for refractory VF/pVT; lidocaine is alternative.
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7. What is the target oxygen saturation (SpO₂) during post-cardiac
arrest care (after ROSC) according to AHA guidance?
A. 100% at all times
B. 85–90%
C. 92–98%
D. 75–85%
Rationale: Post-ROSC oxygenation target is typically 92–98% to
avoid hyperoxia while preventing hypoxia.
8. As an instructor, when teaching adult bradycardia with signs
of instability (hypotension, altered mental status), which is the
recommended initial therapy?
A. Immediate synchronized cardioversion regardless of rhythm
B. Atropine 0.5 mg IV every 3–5 minutes (up to 3 mg) while
preparing for pacing or dopamine/epinephrine infusion
C. Give adenosine 6 mg IV bolus
D. No treatment is necessary unless asystole develops
Rationale: For symptomatic bradycardia, atropine is first
drug therapy; transcutaneous pacing and infusions
(dopamine/epinephrine) if ineffective.
9. During a simulated ACLS class, a candidate has poor chest
compression technique. The most effective corrective teaching
technique is:
A. Give a long lecture about physiology
B. Fail the candidate immediately with no feedback
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