WGU D027 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT FINAL EXAM
2025/2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100%
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Q1. A patient is diagnosed with heart failure. Which cellular adaptation is most
likely occurring in the cardiac myocytes?
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Atrophy
D) Metaplasia
✔✔ Correct Answer✔✔B) Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, which occurs in cardiac myocytes
in response to increased workload (pressure or volume overload). Hyperplasia is
an increase in cell number; atrophy is a decrease in cell size; metaplasia is the
replacement of one cell type with another. Cardiac myocytes are terminally
differentiated and undergo hypertrophy, not hyperplasia.
Q2. A chronic smoker develops a persistent cough with increased mucus
production. Histological examination shows replacement of normal ciliated
columnar epithelium with stratified squamous epithelium. This change is an
example of:
A) Dysplasia
B) Anaplasia
C) Metaplasia
D) Neoplasia
✔✔ Correct Answer✔✔C) Metaplasia
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Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another, often in response to chronic irritation. In smokers, the ciliated
pseudostratified columnar epithelium of the airways is replaced by squamous
epithelium, which is more resistant to injury but loses protective functions.
Dysplasia is disordered growth; anaplasia is loss of differentiation in cancer;
neoplasia is new, uncontrolled growth.
Q3. A patient sustains a myocardial infarction. The death of cardiac muscle cells
due to ischemia is best described as:
A) Apoptosis
B) Necrosis
C) Pyroptosis
D) Autophagy
✔✔ Correct Answer✔✔B) Necrosis
Rationale: Necrosis is unprogrammed cell death resulting from acute injury,
ischemia, or toxins. It is characterized by cellular swelling, inflammation, and loss
of membrane integrity. Apoptosis is programmed cell death that is typically
orderly and does not elicit inflammation. Pyroptosis is inflammatory programmed
cell death associated with infection. Autophagy is cellular self-digestion under
stress.
Q4. A patient with a bacterial infection develops fever and malaise. The release
of which endogenous pyrogen from macrophages is primarily responsible for
fever?
A) Histamine
B) Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
C) Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
D) Prostaglandin E2
✔✔ Correct Answer✔✔B) Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
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*Rationale: IL-1 is a key endogenous pyrogen released by macrophages that acts
on the hypothalamus to raise the thermostatic set point, causing fever. TNF and
IL-6 also contribute. Prostaglandin E2 is the downstream mediator that actually
resets the hypothalamic set point; however, the question asks for the
endogenous pyrogen released from macrophages.*
Q5. Cellular injury from free radicals is primarily due to:
A) Lipid peroxidation of cell membranes
B) Activation of the complement cascade
C) ATP depletion
D) Calcium influx
✔✔ Correct Answer✔✔A) Lipid peroxidation of cell membranes
Rationale: Free radicals (reactive oxygen species) cause oxidative stress by
initiating lipid peroxidation, damaging cell membranes, proteins, and DNA. ATP
depletion occurs in ischemia; calcium influx can activate destructive enzymes;
complement activation is part of immune injury.
Q6. Which cellular change is characteristic of apoptosis?
A) Cell swelling and lysis
B) Inflammatory infiltration
C) Nuclear fragmentation and formation of apoptotic bodies
D) Caseous necrosis
✔✔ Correct Answer✔✔C) Nuclear fragmentation and formation of
apoptotic bodies
Rationale: Apoptosis is characterized by nuclear condensation (pyknosis),
fragmentation (karyorrhexis), and formation of membrane-bound apoptotic
bodies that are phagocytosed without inflammation. Necrosis involves cell
swelling, lysis, and inflammation.
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SECTION 2: INFLAMMATION & IMMUNITY
Q7. A patient presents with redness, swelling, heat, and pain at a wound site.
These cardinal signs of inflammation are primarily caused by:
A) Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
B) Activation of the complement system
C) Release of histamine from mast cells
D) Migration of neutrophils
✔✔ Correct Answer✔✔A) Vasodilation and increased vascular
permeability
Rationale: Vasodilation causes redness (erythema) and heat; increased vascular
permeability leads to edema (swelling); chemical mediators (e.g., bradykinin,
prostaglandins) cause pain. Histamine release initiates these vascular changes,
but the question asks for the primary cause of the signs.
Q8. Which type of white blood cell is the first to arrive at the site of acute
inflammation?
A) Lymphocyte
B) Macrophage
C) Neutrophil
D) Eosinophil
✔✔ Correct Answer✔✔C) Neutrophil
Rationale: Neutrophils are the predominant early responders (within hours) in
acute inflammation. They phagocytose bacteria and release lysosomal enzymes.
Macrophages arrive later (days) and are involved in chronic inflammation.
Lymphocytes are central to adaptive immunity; eosinophils are involved in allergic
reactions and parasitic infections.