CPCT EXAM 2026/2027 | 100% Correct Answers with
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Graded
Domain 1: Patient Care & Safety (20 Questions)
Q1: A 78-year-old patient with osteoporosis and a history of falls is being transferred
from bed to wheelchair. The patient can bear weight on both legs but requires
assistance for balance. Which transfer technique and equipment combination is MOST
appropriate?
A. One-person standing pivot transfer without assistive devices
B. Two-person lift without mechanical equipment
C. Stand-assist device (sit-to-stand lift) with one or two caregivers [CORRECT]
D. Full mechanical lift (Hoyer lift) due to fall history
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient can bear weight but needs balance assistance, indicating a
stand-assist device is optimal. This equipment supports the patient's existing mobility
while ensuring safety, reducing caregiver injury risk, and maintaining patient dignity
through weight-bearing participation. Option A risks patient and caregiver injury without
adequate support. Option B violates safe patient handling guidelines (no manual lifts for
weight-bearing patients). Option D is unnecessary for a patient who can stand; full
mechanical lifts are reserved for non-weight-bearing patients.
,Q2: A CPCT is repositioning a patient with a Stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum. The
patient has been supine for 2 hours. Which repositioning schedule and positioning
strategy is MOST appropriate?
A. Reposition every 4 hours and place directly on the sacral wound for comfort
B. Reposition every 2 hours using a 30-degree lateral tilt to offload the sacrum
[CORRECT]
C. Keep the patient supine continuously with a donut cushion under the sacrum
D. Reposition every hour using the prone position exclusively
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard pressure injury prevention requires repositioning every 2 hours for
bedbound patients. The 30-degree lateral tilt (not 90-degree side-lying) effectively
offloads the sacral area while maintaining stability. Option A's 4-hour interval is too long
and placing weight on the wound is contraindicated. Option C's donut cushion causes
tissue ischemia at the wound edges. Option D's hourly repositioning is unnecessarily
frequent and exclusive prone positioning is impractical.
Q3: A patient with right-sided hemiplegia following a stroke requires range of motion
(ROM) exercises. Which approach follows correct principles for passive ROM?
A. Perform exercises rapidly to stimulate muscle response, moving joints to their pain
threshold
B. Support the limb proximal and distal to the joint, move slowly to end-range without
causing pain, repeat 5-10 times [CORRECT]
C. Focus only on the affected side since the unaffected side maintains normal function
,D. Perform ROM once daily before bedtime only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct passive ROM technique includes: supporting the joint above and
below, slow controlled movements, stopping before pain, and adequate repetitions
(5-10) to maintain joint mobility and circulation. Option A risks injury through rapid
movement and pain threshold violation. Option C ignores the need for bilateral
assessment and prevention of contractures on the unaffected side. Option D's
frequency is insufficient (typically q8h or TID).
Q4: A CPCT is applying wrist restraints to a patient who is pulling at their IV line and
Foley catheter. Which safety monitoring protocol is REQUIRED?
A. Check circulation every 8 hours and release restraints for 15 minutes twice daily
B. Assess circulation (color, temperature, sensation, movement, capillary refill) every
15-30 minutes, release and reapply q2h, document rationale and alternatives attempted
[CORRECT]
C. Apply restraints continuously without release to prevent self-harm
D. Remove restraints only when the patient appears calm
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Joint Commission and CMS regulations mandate: frequent neurovascular
checks (q15-30min), scheduled release with repositioning (q2h), documentation of
medical necessity, and attempted alternatives. This prevents compartment syndrome,
nerve damage, and skin breakdown. Option A's checks are too infrequent. Option C
, causes serious harm and violates regulations. Option D lacks standardization and
endangers the patient.
Q5: A patient with Parkinson's disease is ambulating with a walker. The patient exhibits
a shuffling gait with decreased arm swing. Which safety intervention is PRIORITY?
A. Encourage the patient to walk faster to improve momentum
B. Instruct the patient to lift feet higher and take longer strides, provide verbal cueing for
heel-to-toe pattern [CORRECT]
C. Hold the patient's arm and pull them forward to increase speed
D. Remove the walker as it encourages dependence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parkinson's gait requires specific interventions: visual/verbal cueing for
heel-to-toe pattern, conscious effort to lift feet (reduces shuffling/festination), and
appropriate assistive device use. Option A risks festination and falls. Option C
compromises balance and patient control. Option D removes necessary support and
increases fall risk.
Q6: A CPCT is making an occupied bed for a patient with a fractured femur who is in
Buck's traction. Which technique is CORRECT?
A. Remove the traction weights temporarily to facilitate linen change
B. Keep traction weights hanging freely, have assistant support the patient, change
linens in sections from top to bottom [CORRECT]
C. Place the patient on a flat board and remove all traction for complete linen change
Complete Solutions | NHA Aligned | Certified Patient Care
Technician | Clinical Competencies | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
Domain 1: Patient Care & Safety (20 Questions)
Q1: A 78-year-old patient with osteoporosis and a history of falls is being transferred
from bed to wheelchair. The patient can bear weight on both legs but requires
assistance for balance. Which transfer technique and equipment combination is MOST
appropriate?
A. One-person standing pivot transfer without assistive devices
B. Two-person lift without mechanical equipment
C. Stand-assist device (sit-to-stand lift) with one or two caregivers [CORRECT]
D. Full mechanical lift (Hoyer lift) due to fall history
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient can bear weight but needs balance assistance, indicating a
stand-assist device is optimal. This equipment supports the patient's existing mobility
while ensuring safety, reducing caregiver injury risk, and maintaining patient dignity
through weight-bearing participation. Option A risks patient and caregiver injury without
adequate support. Option B violates safe patient handling guidelines (no manual lifts for
weight-bearing patients). Option D is unnecessary for a patient who can stand; full
mechanical lifts are reserved for non-weight-bearing patients.
,Q2: A CPCT is repositioning a patient with a Stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum. The
patient has been supine for 2 hours. Which repositioning schedule and positioning
strategy is MOST appropriate?
A. Reposition every 4 hours and place directly on the sacral wound for comfort
B. Reposition every 2 hours using a 30-degree lateral tilt to offload the sacrum
[CORRECT]
C. Keep the patient supine continuously with a donut cushion under the sacrum
D. Reposition every hour using the prone position exclusively
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard pressure injury prevention requires repositioning every 2 hours for
bedbound patients. The 30-degree lateral tilt (not 90-degree side-lying) effectively
offloads the sacral area while maintaining stability. Option A's 4-hour interval is too long
and placing weight on the wound is contraindicated. Option C's donut cushion causes
tissue ischemia at the wound edges. Option D's hourly repositioning is unnecessarily
frequent and exclusive prone positioning is impractical.
Q3: A patient with right-sided hemiplegia following a stroke requires range of motion
(ROM) exercises. Which approach follows correct principles for passive ROM?
A. Perform exercises rapidly to stimulate muscle response, moving joints to their pain
threshold
B. Support the limb proximal and distal to the joint, move slowly to end-range without
causing pain, repeat 5-10 times [CORRECT]
C. Focus only on the affected side since the unaffected side maintains normal function
,D. Perform ROM once daily before bedtime only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct passive ROM technique includes: supporting the joint above and
below, slow controlled movements, stopping before pain, and adequate repetitions
(5-10) to maintain joint mobility and circulation. Option A risks injury through rapid
movement and pain threshold violation. Option C ignores the need for bilateral
assessment and prevention of contractures on the unaffected side. Option D's
frequency is insufficient (typically q8h or TID).
Q4: A CPCT is applying wrist restraints to a patient who is pulling at their IV line and
Foley catheter. Which safety monitoring protocol is REQUIRED?
A. Check circulation every 8 hours and release restraints for 15 minutes twice daily
B. Assess circulation (color, temperature, sensation, movement, capillary refill) every
15-30 minutes, release and reapply q2h, document rationale and alternatives attempted
[CORRECT]
C. Apply restraints continuously without release to prevent self-harm
D. Remove restraints only when the patient appears calm
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Joint Commission and CMS regulations mandate: frequent neurovascular
checks (q15-30min), scheduled release with repositioning (q2h), documentation of
medical necessity, and attempted alternatives. This prevents compartment syndrome,
nerve damage, and skin breakdown. Option A's checks are too infrequent. Option C
, causes serious harm and violates regulations. Option D lacks standardization and
endangers the patient.
Q5: A patient with Parkinson's disease is ambulating with a walker. The patient exhibits
a shuffling gait with decreased arm swing. Which safety intervention is PRIORITY?
A. Encourage the patient to walk faster to improve momentum
B. Instruct the patient to lift feet higher and take longer strides, provide verbal cueing for
heel-to-toe pattern [CORRECT]
C. Hold the patient's arm and pull them forward to increase speed
D. Remove the walker as it encourages dependence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parkinson's gait requires specific interventions: visual/verbal cueing for
heel-to-toe pattern, conscious effort to lift feet (reduces shuffling/festination), and
appropriate assistive device use. Option A risks festination and falls. Option C
compromises balance and patient control. Option D removes necessary support and
increases fall risk.
Q6: A CPCT is making an occupied bed for a patient with a fractured femur who is in
Buck's traction. Which technique is CORRECT?
A. Remove the traction weights temporarily to facilitate linen change
B. Keep traction weights hanging freely, have assistant support the patient, change
linens in sections from top to bottom [CORRECT]
C. Place the patient on a flat board and remove all traction for complete linen change
