CPCT PRACTICE EXAM 2026/2027 | 100% Correct Answers
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Domain 1: Patient Care & Safety (20 Questions)
Q1: A 78-year-old patient with osteoporosis and a history of falls is being transferred
from bed to wheelchair. The patient is alert, cooperative, and able to bear weight on
both legs. Which transfer technique is most appropriate?
A. One-person standing pivot transfer without assistive devices
B. Two-person lift transfer with a draw sheet
C. Standing pivot transfer using a gait belt with one assistant [CORRECT]
D. Mechanical lift transfer due to fall history
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A standing pivot transfer with a gait belt is the safest and most appropriate
method for an alert, cooperative patient who can bear weight. The gait belt provides
stability and control during the transfer while promoting patient independence and
dignity. Option A lacks the safety support of a gait belt. Option B (two-person lift) is
unnecessary for a weight-bearing patient and reduces patient autonomy. Option D
(mechanical lift) is excessive—mechanical lifts are reserved for non-weight-bearing
patients or those exceeding safe lifting limits, not for fall prevention alone.
Q2: A patient with a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum is being repositioned. Which
positioning schedule and technique is most appropriate according to current pressure
injury prevention guidelines?
,A. Reposition every 4 hours with a 30-degree lateral tilt using a draw sheet
B. Reposition every 2 hours with a 30-degree lateral tilt and avoid direct pressure on the
sacrum [CORRECT]
C. Reposition every hour with complete side-lying at 90 degrees
D. Keep the patient flat on their back to avoid disturbing the wound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current evidence-based guidelines (NPIAP/EPUAP/PPPIA) recommend
repositioning every 2 hours for at-risk patients, using a 30-degree lateral tilt position to
redistribute pressure without creating shear forces on the sacrum. The 30-degree tilt
(supported by pillows) avoids direct trochanter pressure while protecting the sacral
wound. Option A's 4-hour interval is too long for stage 2 injuries. Option C's 90-degree
side-lying creates excessive pressure on the trochanter and shoulder. Option D
increases sacral pressure and worsens the injury.
Q3: A patient with right-sided hemiparesis following a stroke requires range of motion
(ROM) exercises. Which approach is correct for passive ROM exercises?
A. Support the limb at the joint and move through full available range quickly to maintain
muscle tone
B. Support the limb proximal and distal to the joint, move slowly through full available
range, avoiding pain, and repeat 5-10 times [CORRECT]
C. Move only the affected side to prevent overexertion of the weak limb
D. Perform exercises only when the patient reports stiffness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Proper passive ROM technique requires supporting the limb above and below
the joint to prevent injury, moving slowly through the available range (not forcing beyond
resistance), stopping at pain, and performing 5-10 repetitions to maintain joint mobility
and circulation. Option A risks joint injury from rapid movement and improper support.
Option C ignores the need for bilateral ROM to prevent contractures on the unaffected
,side and maintain functional patterns. Option D is reactive rather than preventive—ROM
should be scheduled, not symptom-dependent.
Q4: A patient is ordered to have wrist restraints applied due to repeated removal of a
nasogastric tube. Which restraint application is correct?
A. Apply restraints tightly to prevent any movement and check every 8 hours
B. Apply restraints using a quick-release knot, ensuring two fingers fit between restraint
and wrist, and check every 2 hours per CMS regulations [CORRECT]
C. Apply restraints to both wrists and ankles for security
D. Use restraints continuously without removal to maintain tube placement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CMS regulations and The Joint Commission standards require: least
restrictive alternative, quick-release knots for emergency removal, two-finger clearance
to ensure circulation, and assessment every 2 hours including circulation checks, skin
integrity, and toileting needs. Option A compromises circulation and violates
assessment frequency. Option C is excessive restraint without individual assessment.
Option D violates the requirement for periodic release and reassessment.
Q5: A patient with Parkinson's disease is ambulating with a shuffling gait and reports
feeling unsteady. Which safety intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage the patient to walk faster to improve momentum
B. Provide a walker with instructions to lift and place it firmly, using a metronome or
auditory cues to improve step rhythm [CORRECT]
C. Hold the patient's arm and pull them forward to assist movement
D. Discourage ambulation to prevent falls
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Parkinson's disease causes festination (shuffling) and postural instability.
Evidence-based interventions include: auditory cues (metronome, counting) to improve
step initiation and rhythm, visual cues (laser lines), and proper walker technique with
lifting (not sliding) to prevent catching on carpet. Option A increases fall risk—faster
shuffling leads to festination and loss of control. Option C creates dependence and
doesn't address the underlying gait disorder. Option D promotes deconditioning and
functional decline.
Q6: A patient requires an occupied bed change. Which sequence maintains patient
safety and dignity?
A. Remove all linens while patient lies flat, then replace with new linens
B. Loosen bottom linens, roll patient to side, remove soiled linen, place clean linen, roll
patient back, and repeat on other side, keeping patient covered throughout [CORRECT]
C. Ask the patient to stand while changing the bed
D. Change only the top sheet to minimize patient movement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The log-rolling technique for occupied bed changes maintains patient dignity
(keeping covered), prevents exposure, and minimizes shearing forces on skin. The
side-to-side approach allows complete linen change without requiring the patient to
stand (unsafe for many patients) or leaving soiled linens in place. Option A exposes the
patient and risks chilling. Option C is unsafe for patients requiring occupied bed
changes. Option D is unhygienic and doesn't address underlying soiling.
Q7: A patient with a total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) is being taught about hip
precautions. Which instruction is correct?
A. Crossing legs at the knee is permitted for comfort
with Complete Solutions | NHA Aligned | Certified Patient
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A+ Graded
Domain 1: Patient Care & Safety (20 Questions)
Q1: A 78-year-old patient with osteoporosis and a history of falls is being transferred
from bed to wheelchair. The patient is alert, cooperative, and able to bear weight on
both legs. Which transfer technique is most appropriate?
A. One-person standing pivot transfer without assistive devices
B. Two-person lift transfer with a draw sheet
C. Standing pivot transfer using a gait belt with one assistant [CORRECT]
D. Mechanical lift transfer due to fall history
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A standing pivot transfer with a gait belt is the safest and most appropriate
method for an alert, cooperative patient who can bear weight. The gait belt provides
stability and control during the transfer while promoting patient independence and
dignity. Option A lacks the safety support of a gait belt. Option B (two-person lift) is
unnecessary for a weight-bearing patient and reduces patient autonomy. Option D
(mechanical lift) is excessive—mechanical lifts are reserved for non-weight-bearing
patients or those exceeding safe lifting limits, not for fall prevention alone.
Q2: A patient with a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum is being repositioned. Which
positioning schedule and technique is most appropriate according to current pressure
injury prevention guidelines?
,A. Reposition every 4 hours with a 30-degree lateral tilt using a draw sheet
B. Reposition every 2 hours with a 30-degree lateral tilt and avoid direct pressure on the
sacrum [CORRECT]
C. Reposition every hour with complete side-lying at 90 degrees
D. Keep the patient flat on their back to avoid disturbing the wound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current evidence-based guidelines (NPIAP/EPUAP/PPPIA) recommend
repositioning every 2 hours for at-risk patients, using a 30-degree lateral tilt position to
redistribute pressure without creating shear forces on the sacrum. The 30-degree tilt
(supported by pillows) avoids direct trochanter pressure while protecting the sacral
wound. Option A's 4-hour interval is too long for stage 2 injuries. Option C's 90-degree
side-lying creates excessive pressure on the trochanter and shoulder. Option D
increases sacral pressure and worsens the injury.
Q3: A patient with right-sided hemiparesis following a stroke requires range of motion
(ROM) exercises. Which approach is correct for passive ROM exercises?
A. Support the limb at the joint and move through full available range quickly to maintain
muscle tone
B. Support the limb proximal and distal to the joint, move slowly through full available
range, avoiding pain, and repeat 5-10 times [CORRECT]
C. Move only the affected side to prevent overexertion of the weak limb
D. Perform exercises only when the patient reports stiffness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Proper passive ROM technique requires supporting the limb above and below
the joint to prevent injury, moving slowly through the available range (not forcing beyond
resistance), stopping at pain, and performing 5-10 repetitions to maintain joint mobility
and circulation. Option A risks joint injury from rapid movement and improper support.
Option C ignores the need for bilateral ROM to prevent contractures on the unaffected
,side and maintain functional patterns. Option D is reactive rather than preventive—ROM
should be scheduled, not symptom-dependent.
Q4: A patient is ordered to have wrist restraints applied due to repeated removal of a
nasogastric tube. Which restraint application is correct?
A. Apply restraints tightly to prevent any movement and check every 8 hours
B. Apply restraints using a quick-release knot, ensuring two fingers fit between restraint
and wrist, and check every 2 hours per CMS regulations [CORRECT]
C. Apply restraints to both wrists and ankles for security
D. Use restraints continuously without removal to maintain tube placement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CMS regulations and The Joint Commission standards require: least
restrictive alternative, quick-release knots for emergency removal, two-finger clearance
to ensure circulation, and assessment every 2 hours including circulation checks, skin
integrity, and toileting needs. Option A compromises circulation and violates
assessment frequency. Option C is excessive restraint without individual assessment.
Option D violates the requirement for periodic release and reassessment.
Q5: A patient with Parkinson's disease is ambulating with a shuffling gait and reports
feeling unsteady. Which safety intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage the patient to walk faster to improve momentum
B. Provide a walker with instructions to lift and place it firmly, using a metronome or
auditory cues to improve step rhythm [CORRECT]
C. Hold the patient's arm and pull them forward to assist movement
D. Discourage ambulation to prevent falls
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Parkinson's disease causes festination (shuffling) and postural instability.
Evidence-based interventions include: auditory cues (metronome, counting) to improve
step initiation and rhythm, visual cues (laser lines), and proper walker technique with
lifting (not sliding) to prevent catching on carpet. Option A increases fall risk—faster
shuffling leads to festination and loss of control. Option C creates dependence and
doesn't address the underlying gait disorder. Option D promotes deconditioning and
functional decline.
Q6: A patient requires an occupied bed change. Which sequence maintains patient
safety and dignity?
A. Remove all linens while patient lies flat, then replace with new linens
B. Loosen bottom linens, roll patient to side, remove soiled linen, place clean linen, roll
patient back, and repeat on other side, keeping patient covered throughout [CORRECT]
C. Ask the patient to stand while changing the bed
D. Change only the top sheet to minimize patient movement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The log-rolling technique for occupied bed changes maintains patient dignity
(keeping covered), prevents exposure, and minimizes shearing forces on skin. The
side-to-side approach allows complete linen change without requiring the patient to
stand (unsafe for many patients) or leaving soiled linens in place. Option A exposes the
patient and risks chilling. Option C is unsafe for patients requiring occupied bed
changes. Option D is unhygienic and doesn't address underlying soiling.
Q7: A patient with a total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) is being taught about hip
precautions. Which instruction is correct?
A. Crossing legs at the knee is permitted for comfort
