INTRODUCTION TO CRITICAL CARE
NURSING, 8TH EDITION BY MARY LOU
SOLE TESTBANK LATEST 2026-2027
Chapter 1: Overview of Critical Care Nursing
1. Which of the following professional organizations best supports critical care nursing practice?
a. American Heart Association
b. American Nurses Association
c. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses
d. Society of Critical Care Medicine
Answer: c. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses
Rationale: The American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN) is the specialty organization
dedicated to the support and representation of critical care nurses. The American Heart Association
focuses on cardiovascular health, the American Nurses Association represents all nurses, and the Society
of Critical Care Medicine represents the multi-professional team .
2. A nurse has worked in the surgical intensive care unit for two years and is interested in obtaining
certification. Which credential is most applicable?
a. ACNPC
b. CCNS
c. CCRN
d. PCCN
Answer: c. CCRN
Rationale: The CCRN credential is designed for registered nurses providing direct care to
acutely/critically ill patients. ACNPC is for acute care nurse practitioners, CCNS is for clinical nurse
specialists, and PCCN is for progressive care or step-down unit nurses .
3. The primary purpose of certification in critical care nursing is to:
a. Assure consumers that a nurse will not make a mistake.
b. Prepare a nurse for graduate school.
c. Promote Magnet status for a facility.
d. Validate a nurse's specialized knowledge.
,Answer: d. Validate a nurse's specialized knowledge.
Rationale: Certification validates that a nurse has a minimum level of knowledge and expertise in a
specialty area. While it may contribute to Magnet status and demonstrates professionalism, its main
purpose is to validate knowledge, not guarantee mistake-free care .
4. The Synergy Model of Practice states that:
a. Visiting hours should be unrestricted 24 hours a day.
b. The needs of patients and families drive nursing competencies.
c. Holistic and alternative therapies should be the primary focus.
d. The patient's need for energy determines nursing interventions.
Answer: b. The needs of patients and families drive nursing competencies.
Rationale: The AACN Synergy Model posits that patient characteristics drive nurse competencies. The
goal is to achieve a synergy where the nurse's competencies match the patient's needs, resulting in
optimal outcomes .
Chapter 3: Ethical and Legal Issues in Critical Care
5. A patient with a terminal illness tells the nurse, "I don't want them to put that tube down my throat
again. Just let me go." The patient has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order but no living will. According to
ethical principles, what is the nurse's best action?
a. Inform the healthcare provider of the patient's statement.
b. Tell the family they need to make a decision for the patient.
c. Ensure the DNR order is followed as written.
d. Advise the patient to sign a consent form for intubation.
Answer: a. Inform the healthcare provider of the patient's statement.
Rationale: The patient is expressing a wish regarding a specific treatment (intubation), which constitutes
an oral advance directive. The nurse has a duty to advocate for the patient and must communicate this
wish to the healthcare provider so it can be incorporated into the plan of care.
6. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being considered for organ donation after a devastating brain
injury. Which statement by the nurse reflects an understanding of the ethical and legal guidelines for
organ donation?
a. "I will ask the family to consider donation while we continue aggressive life-sustaining treatment."
b. "The decision about donation must be made by the family before we withdraw life support."
c. "The organ procurement organization (OPO) must be notified of a potential donor."
d. "If the patient is a registered donor, we don't need to approach the family for consent."
Answer: c. The organ procurement organization (OPO) must be notified of a potential donor.
Rationale: Federal law requires hospitals to notify the OPO of all imminent deaths or potential donors.
, The OPO then manages the donation process, which is separate from end-of-life care. Families are
typically approached for authorization even if the patient is registered, and discussions about donation
should not occur until the decision to withdraw life support is made.
Chapter 5: Comfort and Sedation
7. A patient on mechanical ventilation is becoming increasingly agitated and pulling at the
endotracheal tube. The patient's heart rate has increased from 88 to 120 bpm. What is the nurse's
priority action?
a. Administer the prn dose of haloperidol.
b. Assess the patient for pain and non-pharmacologic causes of agitation.
c. Increase the fentanyl infusion rate.
d. Request an order for physical restraints.
Answer: b. Assess the patient for pain and non-pharmacologic causes of agitation.
Rationale: According to clinical practice guidelines (e.g., from the Society of Critical Care Medicine),
agitation should first be managed by identifying and treating reversible causes such as pain, hypoxemia,
or a full bladder. Sedatives and analgesics are then titrated to treat the underlying cause.
8. The Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale (RASS) is used to assess a patient. The patient makes no
movement or eye contact when spoken to but does open his eyes and move when physically
stimulated. What is the correct RASS score?
a. -1 (Drowsy)
b. -2 (Light sedation)
c. -3 (Moderate sedation)
d. -4 (Deep sedation)
Answer: c. -3 (Moderate sedation)
Rationale: A RASS score of -3 is defined as "Moderate sedation: patient moves or opens eyes to voice
(or physical stimulation) but no eye contact." -2 is light sedation (brief eye contact to voice), and -4 is
deep sedation (no response to physical stimulation).
Chapter 7: Dysrhythmia Interpretation and Management
9. A patient's cardiac monitor shows a rhythm with no P waves, a coarse irregular baseline, and QRS
complexes that are irregular and varying in amplitude. What dysrhythmia is this?
a. Ventricular tachycardia
b. Atrial flutter
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Ventricular fibrillation
NURSING, 8TH EDITION BY MARY LOU
SOLE TESTBANK LATEST 2026-2027
Chapter 1: Overview of Critical Care Nursing
1. Which of the following professional organizations best supports critical care nursing practice?
a. American Heart Association
b. American Nurses Association
c. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses
d. Society of Critical Care Medicine
Answer: c. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses
Rationale: The American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN) is the specialty organization
dedicated to the support and representation of critical care nurses. The American Heart Association
focuses on cardiovascular health, the American Nurses Association represents all nurses, and the Society
of Critical Care Medicine represents the multi-professional team .
2. A nurse has worked in the surgical intensive care unit for two years and is interested in obtaining
certification. Which credential is most applicable?
a. ACNPC
b. CCNS
c. CCRN
d. PCCN
Answer: c. CCRN
Rationale: The CCRN credential is designed for registered nurses providing direct care to
acutely/critically ill patients. ACNPC is for acute care nurse practitioners, CCNS is for clinical nurse
specialists, and PCCN is for progressive care or step-down unit nurses .
3. The primary purpose of certification in critical care nursing is to:
a. Assure consumers that a nurse will not make a mistake.
b. Prepare a nurse for graduate school.
c. Promote Magnet status for a facility.
d. Validate a nurse's specialized knowledge.
,Answer: d. Validate a nurse's specialized knowledge.
Rationale: Certification validates that a nurse has a minimum level of knowledge and expertise in a
specialty area. While it may contribute to Magnet status and demonstrates professionalism, its main
purpose is to validate knowledge, not guarantee mistake-free care .
4. The Synergy Model of Practice states that:
a. Visiting hours should be unrestricted 24 hours a day.
b. The needs of patients and families drive nursing competencies.
c. Holistic and alternative therapies should be the primary focus.
d. The patient's need for energy determines nursing interventions.
Answer: b. The needs of patients and families drive nursing competencies.
Rationale: The AACN Synergy Model posits that patient characteristics drive nurse competencies. The
goal is to achieve a synergy where the nurse's competencies match the patient's needs, resulting in
optimal outcomes .
Chapter 3: Ethical and Legal Issues in Critical Care
5. A patient with a terminal illness tells the nurse, "I don't want them to put that tube down my throat
again. Just let me go." The patient has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order but no living will. According to
ethical principles, what is the nurse's best action?
a. Inform the healthcare provider of the patient's statement.
b. Tell the family they need to make a decision for the patient.
c. Ensure the DNR order is followed as written.
d. Advise the patient to sign a consent form for intubation.
Answer: a. Inform the healthcare provider of the patient's statement.
Rationale: The patient is expressing a wish regarding a specific treatment (intubation), which constitutes
an oral advance directive. The nurse has a duty to advocate for the patient and must communicate this
wish to the healthcare provider so it can be incorporated into the plan of care.
6. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being considered for organ donation after a devastating brain
injury. Which statement by the nurse reflects an understanding of the ethical and legal guidelines for
organ donation?
a. "I will ask the family to consider donation while we continue aggressive life-sustaining treatment."
b. "The decision about donation must be made by the family before we withdraw life support."
c. "The organ procurement organization (OPO) must be notified of a potential donor."
d. "If the patient is a registered donor, we don't need to approach the family for consent."
Answer: c. The organ procurement organization (OPO) must be notified of a potential donor.
Rationale: Federal law requires hospitals to notify the OPO of all imminent deaths or potential donors.
, The OPO then manages the donation process, which is separate from end-of-life care. Families are
typically approached for authorization even if the patient is registered, and discussions about donation
should not occur until the decision to withdraw life support is made.
Chapter 5: Comfort and Sedation
7. A patient on mechanical ventilation is becoming increasingly agitated and pulling at the
endotracheal tube. The patient's heart rate has increased from 88 to 120 bpm. What is the nurse's
priority action?
a. Administer the prn dose of haloperidol.
b. Assess the patient for pain and non-pharmacologic causes of agitation.
c. Increase the fentanyl infusion rate.
d. Request an order for physical restraints.
Answer: b. Assess the patient for pain and non-pharmacologic causes of agitation.
Rationale: According to clinical practice guidelines (e.g., from the Society of Critical Care Medicine),
agitation should first be managed by identifying and treating reversible causes such as pain, hypoxemia,
or a full bladder. Sedatives and analgesics are then titrated to treat the underlying cause.
8. The Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale (RASS) is used to assess a patient. The patient makes no
movement or eye contact when spoken to but does open his eyes and move when physically
stimulated. What is the correct RASS score?
a. -1 (Drowsy)
b. -2 (Light sedation)
c. -3 (Moderate sedation)
d. -4 (Deep sedation)
Answer: c. -3 (Moderate sedation)
Rationale: A RASS score of -3 is defined as "Moderate sedation: patient moves or opens eyes to voice
(or physical stimulation) but no eye contact." -2 is light sedation (brief eye contact to voice), and -4 is
deep sedation (no response to physical stimulation).
Chapter 7: Dysrhythmia Interpretation and Management
9. A patient's cardiac monitor shows a rhythm with no P waves, a coarse irregular baseline, and QRS
complexes that are irregular and varying in amplitude. What dysrhythmia is this?
a. Ventricular tachycardia
b. Atrial flutter
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Ventricular fibrillation
