RN HESI PHARMACOLOGY V3 EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS!!
<LATEST VERSION>
1. A nurse administers IV morphine to a postoperative client. Which
assessment finding requires the most immediate nursing action?
A. Blood pressure 102/60 mm Hg
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Pinpoint pupils
D. Client reports nausea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of opioid
analgesics and requires immediate intervention.
2. A client receiving IV heparin has an aPTT of 98 seconds. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Continue the infusion
B. Increase the infusion rate
C. Hold the infusion and notify the provider
D. Administer vitamin K
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An aPTT significantly above therapeutic range indicates high bleeding
risk; the infusion must be stopped and the provider notified.
3. Which medication requires monitoring of peak and trough levels to prevent
toxicity?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Gentamicin
C. Metoprolol
D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aminoglycosides require peak and trough monitoring due to
nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity risks.
4. A client taking digoxin reports nausea and visual halos. What action should
the nurse take first?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Check serum potassium level
C. Administer calcium gluconate
D. Encourage fluid intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases digoxin toxicity; potassium levels must be
assessed immediately.
5. A nurse administers insulin glargine at 2100. When should the nurse
anticipate its peak action?
A. 1–2 hours
B. 4–6 hours
C. 8–12 hours
D. No pronounced peak
,Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Long-acting insulin glargine provides steady basal coverage without a
significant peak.
6. Which medication is considered a high-alert medication requiring
independent double-checks?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Insulin
C. Prednisone
D. Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin errors can cause severe hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia and
require strict safety checks.
7. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.5. Which finding is most
concerning?
A. Fatigue
B. Dark tarry stools
C. Decreased appetite
D. Mild headache
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An elevated INR increases bleeding risk; melena indicates possible GI
hemorrhage.
8. A nurse prepares to administer IV potassium chloride. Which action is
appropriate?
A. Administer IV push
B. Dilute in IV fluid and use a pump
C. Mix with dextrose and bolus rapidly
D. Give intramuscularly
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV potassium must be diluted and infused via pump to prevent fatal
dysrhythmias.
9. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for in a client taking an
ACE inhibitor?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Bradycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly cause a dry, nonproductive cough due to
bradykinin accumulation.
10. A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. Which outcome indicates the
medication is effective?
A. Decreased respiratory rate
B. Reduced wheezing
C. Lowered blood pressure
D. Increased sputum production
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, improving airflow and
reducing wheezing.
11. Which medication should be withheld if the client’s apical pulse is below
60/min?
A. Furosemide
B. Metoprolol
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Atorvastatin
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS!!
<LATEST VERSION>
1. A nurse administers IV morphine to a postoperative client. Which
assessment finding requires the most immediate nursing action?
A. Blood pressure 102/60 mm Hg
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Pinpoint pupils
D. Client reports nausea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of opioid
analgesics and requires immediate intervention.
2. A client receiving IV heparin has an aPTT of 98 seconds. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Continue the infusion
B. Increase the infusion rate
C. Hold the infusion and notify the provider
D. Administer vitamin K
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An aPTT significantly above therapeutic range indicates high bleeding
risk; the infusion must be stopped and the provider notified.
3. Which medication requires monitoring of peak and trough levels to prevent
toxicity?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Gentamicin
C. Metoprolol
D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aminoglycosides require peak and trough monitoring due to
nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity risks.
4. A client taking digoxin reports nausea and visual halos. What action should
the nurse take first?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Check serum potassium level
C. Administer calcium gluconate
D. Encourage fluid intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases digoxin toxicity; potassium levels must be
assessed immediately.
5. A nurse administers insulin glargine at 2100. When should the nurse
anticipate its peak action?
A. 1–2 hours
B. 4–6 hours
C. 8–12 hours
D. No pronounced peak
,Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Long-acting insulin glargine provides steady basal coverage without a
significant peak.
6. Which medication is considered a high-alert medication requiring
independent double-checks?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Insulin
C. Prednisone
D. Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin errors can cause severe hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia and
require strict safety checks.
7. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.5. Which finding is most
concerning?
A. Fatigue
B. Dark tarry stools
C. Decreased appetite
D. Mild headache
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An elevated INR increases bleeding risk; melena indicates possible GI
hemorrhage.
8. A nurse prepares to administer IV potassium chloride. Which action is
appropriate?
A. Administer IV push
B. Dilute in IV fluid and use a pump
C. Mix with dextrose and bolus rapidly
D. Give intramuscularly
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV potassium must be diluted and infused via pump to prevent fatal
dysrhythmias.
9. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for in a client taking an
ACE inhibitor?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Bradycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly cause a dry, nonproductive cough due to
bradykinin accumulation.
10. A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. Which outcome indicates the
medication is effective?
A. Decreased respiratory rate
B. Reduced wheezing
C. Lowered blood pressure
D. Increased sputum production
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, improving airflow and
reducing wheezing.
11. Which medication should be withheld if the client’s apical pulse is below
60/min?
A. Furosemide
B. Metoprolol
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Atorvastatin
