OSHA 30: 50 question practice test with guaranteed correct answers

C - correct answers 1. The results of workplace injuries and illnesses may include: a. Lower workers' compensation costs and less employee turn over b. Reductions in DART and incidents rates c. Lower morale and increased costs to train replacement workers d. Improved customer relations and fewer schedule delays B - correct answers 2. OSHA's mission is to: A. Protect the safety and health of the general public B. Protect the safety and health of Americans workers C. Ensure all workers receive the federal minimum wage D. Ensure all workers recipients adequate worker's compensation B - correct answers 3. The right of workers to seek safety and health on the job without fear of punishment can be found in which of the following? a. Preambles to OSHA standards b. Section 11 (c) of the OSH Act c. The General Duty Clause d. Part 1926 - OSHA Safety and Health Regulations for Construction A - correct answers 4. Horizontal standards apply: a. when a condition is not covered by a specific industry standard b. when a hazard is not considered to be serious c. only in specific situations or industries d. if a vertical or specific industry standard is less stringent D - correct answers 5. The purpose of OSHA Directives, including Enforcement and Compliance Directives (CPL), is to: a. describe the process of an OSHA inspection b. summarize the reasoning behind OSHA requirements c. describe the specific penalties associated with each type of violation d. ensure consistent enforcement of OSIIA regulations B - correct answers 6. OSHA requires that employers certify that abatement is complete: a. when three violations are cited b. for each cited violation c. when violations result in a fatality d. for only the most serious violations cited C - correct answers 7. Which of the following actions would result in a "creating" employer receiving a citation under OSHA's multi-employer citation policy for damaging a guardrail exposing all employees to a fall hazard? a. Creating employer, who had no authority to fix hazards, failed to replace the damaged guard rail b. Creating employer took immediate and effective steps to keep its employees away from the damaged guardrail c. Creating employer failed to inform employees, other than its workers, of the damaged guardrail d. Creating employer notified the controlling employer of the damaged guardrail and fall hazard A - correct answers 8. In addition to the presentation of credentials, the inspection process includes: a. the opening conference, the walk around inspection, and the closing conference b. the walk around inspection, the closing conference, and the period up to the end of the various abatement dates c. preparation, planning, scope, forms completion, and the walkaround inspection d. the opening conference, the closing conference, and the informal conference B - correct answers 9. As a result of a work-related illness or injury, which of the following would be classified as restricted work activity (not including the day the illness or injury began? a. Days the employee spent at home recovering b. Days the employee was only able to work a partial work shift c. Days the employee was able to perform all of his job duties d. Days the employee produced fewer goods than prior to the injury /incident C - correct answers 10. In OSHA Recordkeeping, an incidence rate is: a. the percent of injuries or illnesses in the workplace b. identical to the workers' compensation experience modification rate c. the number of recordable injuries and illnesses per 100 full-time workers d. the median number of days away or days restricted for recordable incidents D - correct answers 11. To demonstrate management leadership and commitment to safety and health, managers should: a. involve only supervisors in policy-making on safety and health issues b. delegate lower level staff to conduct safety and health meetings and inspections so employees are not intimidated c. place responsibility for the success of the safety and health system on employees d. be an example by knowing and following the rules employees are expected to follow B - correct answers 12. The two main components of an employer's accident prevention responsibilities required are: a. housekeeping and fire prevention programs b. safety and health program and jobsite inspections by a competent person c. jobsite inspections and employee training by the competent person d. qualified and competent Person A - correct answers 13. The maximum travel distance from any point of the protected area to the nearest fire extinguisher shall not exceed ___ feet. a. 75 b. 100 c. 150 d. 200 C - correct answers 14. Accident prevention signs such as; danger, caution and exit signs shall be work is being performed. a. available at the job shack b. maintained at eye level c. visible d. permanently attached to building surfaces A - correct answers 15. When stopping a fall, a personal fall arrest system shall bring an employee to a complete stop and limit the maximum deceleration distance to feet. a.3.5 b. 6 c. 6.5 d. 10 D - correct answers 16. All hand and power tools, whether paid for by the employer or employee, shall be: a. tested daily b. equipped with safety guards c. kept in an approved storage container d. maintained in a safe condition A - correct answers 17. A person who has a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing or who has demonstrated his/her ability to solve problems relating to specific work is a/an: a. qualified person b. professional expert c. competent person d. authorized person B - correct answers 18. Whenever practicable, all arc welding and cutting operations shall be ___________ to protect employees and other persons working in the vicinity. a. ameliorated b. shielded c. minimized d. attenuated C - correct answers 19. Failure to inspect for oil or grease on regulator fittings, valves, or the cap threads on a cylinder of oxygen can: a. improve the performance of the cylinder b. cause leakage of the cylinder c. result in fire or explosion d. eliminate plug ups D - correct answers 20. Personal fall arrest systems, when stopping a fall, shall be rigged such that: a. it has a maximum arresting force of 5000 pounds or five times the potential impact energy of an employee b. it has a separate anchorage point for each emplovee c. an employee can use a self retracting lanyard or lifeline d. an employee cannot free fall more than 6 feet or contact any lower level C - correct answers 21. When mechanical equipment is being used perpendicular to the roof edge, the warning lines cannot be closer than feet. a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 15 A - correct answers 22. It is the __________________ responsibility to initiate and maintain accident prevention programs to comply with all applicable standards. a. employer's b. competent person's c. controlling contractor's d. purchaser's B - correct answers 23. An "Assured equipment grounding conductor program" deals with the cord-set and receptacles which are: a. part of the permanent wiring of the building or structure part of the permanent wiring of the building or structure c. equipped with a ground-fault circuit interrupter d. used with tools that are approved as double-insulated A - correct answers 24. What is the maximum voltage before guarding is required against accidental contact by cabinets, other forms of enclosures, or by location in a room on enclosure accessible only to qualified persons (electricians)? a. 50 volts or greater b. 75 volts or greater c. 110 volts or greater d. 220 volts or greater A - correct answers 25. The practice of connecting two metallic objects to prevent static sparks is called: a. bonding b. welding c. conducive fixturing d. grounding C - correct answers 26. Before the start of any work covered under Subpart V - Power Transmission and Distribution, which of the following shall be completed? a. A tool box talk to discuss personal protective equipment b. Each employee takes a written test on high voltage hazards c. Existing conditions are determined by an inspection or a test d. All power sources are de-energized and grounded C - correct answers 27. OSHA requires that scaffolding being erected, moved, dismantled or altered be supervised by: a. employees trained in the erection, and dismantling of scaffolding b. a scaffold qualified person c. a competent person d. the manufacturer C - correct answers 28. The top rail of a guardrail system must be a height of inches + or -3 inches above the walking/working level. a. 36 b. 40 c. 42 d. 48 B - correct answers 29. A material chute used during demolition operations must be enclosed when its angle is equal to or greater than degrees from the horizontal. a. 35 b. 45 c. 55 d. 65 B - correct answers 30. Which of the following is a "Type B" Soil? a. Previously disturbed soil with unconfined compressive strength of 4.0 TSF b. Sandy clay loam having unconfined compressive strength of 1.2 TSF c. Gray clay with unconfined compressive strength of 3.0 TSF, but is fissured d. Silty clay loam near a railroad where vibrations can be felt, but has 5.0 TSF B - correct answers 31. What is the trigger height when the masonry walls must be braced? a. 5ft b. 8ft c. 10ft d. 12ft A - correct answers 32. On temporary stairs, handrails (to provide adequate handholds for employees grasping to prevent falling) shall have a minimum clearance of inches between the handrail and walls. a.3 b. 6 c. 7 d. 9 A - correct answers 33. When a masonry wall is being constructed, a limited access zone at least the height of the wall plus a minimum of ____ feet tall shall be established on the side of the wall without scaffolding. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 C - correct answers 34. Except for extra-heavy-duty metal or plastic portable ladders, all portable ladders must support times the maximum intended load. a. 2 b. 3 c.4 d. 10 D - correct answers 35. A controlled decking zone can only be used as fall protection up to a maximum height of feet. a. 6 b. 10 c. 25 d.30 C - correct answers 36. Type A soil can be sloped at a 1/2 :1 ratio if the excavation is open less than 24 hours and is less than _____ feet in depth a. 6 b. 10 c. 12 d. 15 C - correct answers 37. Portable ladders with structural defects such as, broken or missing rungs or split rails, shall be: a. repaired with industrial grade adhesive b. tagged with "Use with Caution" c. removed from service until repaired d. only used to reach heights less than 10 feet C - correct answers 38. Cross bracing on a scaffold is only acceptable as a midrail when the crossing point of the two braces is between _inches above the work platform and end points are less than 48 inches apart. a. 15 and 25 b. 18 and 28 c. 20 and 30 d. 28 and 38 A - correct answers 39. How will a hand tucked splice on a wire rope sling be rated compared with a mechanically spliced (manufactured) wire rope sling? a. The hand tucked sling rating will be lower b. The hand tucked sling rating will be the same c. The hand tucked sling rating will be higher d. It depends on the diameter C - correct answers 40. Who must have the authority to stop and refuse to handle crane loads until a qualified person has determined that safety has been assured? a. Site superintendent b. Lead rigger c. Crane operator d. Competent Person C - correct answers 41. During crane operations when signaling is required, if the signals are interrupted the crane operator should: a. continue with the lift to get the job done b. assume that the last signal still applies and continue the lift c. safely stop operations requiring signals until they are reestablished d. refer to the operator's manual for procedures C - correct answers 42. ___________ is are responsible to train signal persons. a. The local OSHA office b. Third party training companies C. The employer d. The controlling contractor C - correct answers 43. The material used in rollover protection structures must have the capability of performing at what degree Fahrenheit? a. -25 b. -5 c. 0 d. 32 A - correct answers 44. Eye and face protection equipment used to protect against hazards shall meet the requirements specified in: a. ANSI Z87.1 b. ANSI Z89.1 c. ANSI Z41.1 d. ANSI Z244.1 A - correct answers 45. Which is the correct hierarchy for controlling overexposure to chemical hazards? a. 1. Engineering controls, 2. Administrative controls, 3. Personal protective equipment b. 1. Personal protective equipment, 2. Administrative controls, 3. Engineering controls c. 1. Administrative controls, 2. Ventilation, 3. Engineering controls d. 1. Ventilation, 2. Personal protective equipment, 3. Administrative controls B - correct answers 46. An increase of three decibels means the sound intensity has ___________. a. tripled b. doubled c. stayed the same d. quadrupled B - correct answers 47. The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) recommends that worker noise exposure be below dBA (for 8 hours to prevent hearing loss. a. 75 dBA b.85 dBA c. 88 dBA d. 90 dBA D - correct answers 48. The Cal/OSHA construction noise standard takes effect at a. 75 dBA b. 85 dBA c. 88 dBA d. 90 dBA D - correct answers 49. Ergonomic injuries may be caused by____________. a. faulty GFCI's b. chemical exposures c. lack of machine guards d. awkward posture A - correct answers 50. The three main routes of entry are_______, ________, and ____________. a. Inhalation, skin absorption, and ingestion b. inhalation, through your eyes, and ears c. immersion, skin absorption, and insertion d. nose, blood, and skin absorption