NR 565 - ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY MIDTERM EXAM PREP
CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING NEWEST 2026/2027 STUDY
GUIDE EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW
VERSION!!
Ezetimibe (Zetia) is used to help reduce the absorption of cholesterol in the blood.
It is known to help decrease levels of LDL cholesterol, triglycerides, and
apolipoprotein B but is known to slightly increase what?
A. CK level
B. Potassium level
C. HDL cholesterol
D. LFTs
C. HDL cholesterol
What are the monitoring needs of thiazide diuretics?
A. Weight
B. Blood Pressure
C. Potassium
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
What medication is the first line recommendation for blood pressure control?
A. ACE Inhibitor
B. ARB
C. Thiazide diuretic
D. Calcium Channel Blocker
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, NR 565 - Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Exam Prep
C. Thiazide diuretic
When should naloxone be prescribed to a patient?
A. After the patient's first overdose
B. With every opioid prescription
C. At the patient's request
D. After an appointment with a pain specialist
B. With every opioid prescription
What is recommended as first-line drugs for treating hypertension, especially for
patients with risk factors for osteoporosis?
A. Thiazides
B. Diuretics.
C. Beta-blockers.
D. ACE inhibitors.
A. Thiazides
When is the appropriate time to recommend that a patient see a pain specialist?
A. 120 mg or more of morphine a day
B. 40 mg morphine daily
C. 25 mcg of fentanyl daily
D. None of the above
A. 120 mg or more of morphine a day
What are the contraindications for ranolazine when treating angina?
A. Hepatic impairment
B. Renal impairment
C. Prior prolonged QT
D. Both A and C
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, NR 565 - Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Exam Prep
D. Both A and C
The NP understands it is best to avoid prescribing a patient both quinidine and
digoxin concurrently because:
A. Digoxin increases increases the rate of absorption of Quinidine
B. Quinidine can promote digoxin toxicity.
C. Quinidine increases renal excretion of digoxin.
D. Digoxin delays the onset of action of Quinidine.
B. Quinidine can promote digoxin toxicity.
Why is the BEERS criteria important?
A. It identifies medications with a high likelihood of causing adverse effects in
older adults.
B. Medications on this list should always be given to adults older than 65 years
old.
C. It identifies medications that require their dosage to be increased in the
presence of impaired kidney function in older adults.
D. It identifies medications frequently prescribed to older adults that are
affordable.
A. It identifies drugs with a high likelihood of causing adverse effects in older
adults.
Which of the following is a known beta blocker?
A. Labetalol
B. Lisinopril
C. Losartan
D. Amlodipine
A. Labetalol
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, NR 565 - Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Exam Prep
What class of drugs are the mainstay treatment for heart failure?
A. Aldosterone Receptor Antagonist
B. Loop Diuretics
C. Angiotensin Receptor Neprilysin Inhibitors
D. Thiazide Diuretics
B. Loop Diuretics
What are two functions of naloxone when a patient is on buprenorphine?
A. Prevention of toxicity
B. Stop c\onstipation caused by Buprenorphine
C. Cannot readily reverse toxicity already occurring
D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
Why must an NP be cautious when prescribing medications to the elderly
population?
A. Due to their diagnosis of dementia.
B. They are high risk for polypharmacy.
C. The elderly population metabolizes medication faster.
D. Prescribe as usual. No difference in elderly patients.
B. They are high risk for polypharmacy.
There are several points of education that should be given to a patient taking
acetaminophen. Which of these statements if made by the patient taking
acetaminophen is incorrect?
A. "If I take one dose, I should wait at least four hours to take another."
B. "There is no limit to how many tablets I can take each day."
C. "I should not take Tylenol if I have liver disease or chronically drink alcohol."
D. "I can take 325-650mg for mild pain, and 500-1000mg for moderate pain."
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