GCU NUR 634 Midterm Exam Prep
GCU NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A patient presents with vague muscle pain and fatigue without a clear injury.
What is the most important condition to screen for?
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Fibromyalgia
c) Depression
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
e) Vitamin deficiency
Correct Answer: c) Depression
Rationale:
Vague somatic complaints such as fatigue and diffuse muscle pain are commonly
associated with depression. Screening for mental health conditions is essential,
as psychological factors often manifest as physical symptoms. Early
identification improves overall patient outcomes.
A patient reports double vision that persists even when one eye is covered. Which
cranial nerve should be evaluated?
a) Cranial nerve II
b) Cranial nerve IV
c) Cranial nerve VI
d) Cranial nerve III
e) Cranial nerve V
1|Page
, GCU NUR 634 Midterm Exam Prep
Correct Answer: d) Cranial nerve III
Rationale:
Persistent diplopia with one eye covered suggests a neurologic cause rather than
binocular misalignment. Cranial nerve III controls most extraocular movements,
and dysfunction can result in diplopia. Proper cranial nerve assessment is crucial
in neurological evaluation.
A patient presents with lateral elbow pain that worsens with wrist extension.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Medial epicondylitis
b) Olecranon bursitis
c) Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis)
d) Ulnar nerve entrapment
e) Radial fracture
Correct Answer: c) Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis)
Rationale:
Tennis elbow involves inflammation of the extensor tendons at the lateral
epicondyle and presents with pain on the outer elbow, especially during wrist
extension. Medial epicondylitis presents on the inner elbow, helping
differentiate between the two conditions.
During incision and drainage of a lump, a “cheesy” substance is expressed. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
a) Lipoma
b) Abscess
c) Lymphadenopathy
d) Sebaceous cyst
e) Hematoma
2|Page
, GCU NUR 634 Midterm Exam Prep
Correct Answer: d) Sebaceous cyst
Rationale:
Sebaceous (epidermoid) cysts typically contain keratinous material that appears
thick and “cheesy.” This finding is characteristic and helps distinguish it from
abscesses (which contain pus) or lipomas (which are fatty and soft).
A patient has a cup-to-disc ratio of 1:2 on fundoscopic exam. What does this
finding suggest?
a) Increased risk for glaucoma
b) Normal finding with less suspicion for glaucoma
c) Optic nerve atrophy
d) Retinal detachment
e) Increased intraocular pressure
Correct Answer: b) Normal finding with less suspicion for glaucoma
Rationale:
A cup-to-disc ratio of 1:2 (0.5) is generally considered within normal limits. In
glaucoma, the optic cup enlarges, leading to a higher ratio (e.g., >0.6–0.7).
Therefore, a smaller ratio suggests a healthier optic nerve and lower suspicion
for glaucomatous damage.
A patient is extremely talkative during the visit and does not clearly state their
concern. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate to identify the
primary reason for the visit?
a) Interrupt the patient early to maintain time efficiency
b) Redirect the conversation and summarize key points
c) Allow the patient to continue without interruption
d) Ask only closed-ended questions
e) Focus only on objective findings
3|Page
, GCU NUR 634 Midterm Exam Prep
Correct Answer: b) Redirect the conversation and summarize key points
Rationale:
In clinical communication, patients who are overly talkative may unintentionally
obscure their chief complaint. The provider should use therapeutic
communication techniques such as redirection and summarization to guide the
conversation while still validating the patient. This ensures efficiency without
compromising rapport. Interrupting or relying solely on closed-ended questions
may hinder trust and miss important contextual details.
A patient presents with blood in the eye. Which of the following questions is
MOST important to include in the assessment?
a) Dietary habits
b) Sleep patterns
c) Recent trauma or injury to the eye
d) Family history of hypertension
e) Exercise routine
Correct Answer: c) Recent trauma or injury to the eye
Rationale:
Blood in the eye may indicate a subconjunctival hemorrhage, which is often
benign but can result from trauma, increased intrathoracic pressure (e.g.,
vomiting), or systemic issues. Asking about trauma helps differentiate between
harmless causes and more serious ocular injury. While other questions may
provide background information, trauma assessment is the most critical initial
step.
Which of the following is considered a normal age-related visual change?
a) Diplopia
b) Presbyopia
c) Scotoma
4|Page
GCU NUR 634 MIDTERM EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A patient presents with vague muscle pain and fatigue without a clear injury.
What is the most important condition to screen for?
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Fibromyalgia
c) Depression
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
e) Vitamin deficiency
Correct Answer: c) Depression
Rationale:
Vague somatic complaints such as fatigue and diffuse muscle pain are commonly
associated with depression. Screening for mental health conditions is essential,
as psychological factors often manifest as physical symptoms. Early
identification improves overall patient outcomes.
A patient reports double vision that persists even when one eye is covered. Which
cranial nerve should be evaluated?
a) Cranial nerve II
b) Cranial nerve IV
c) Cranial nerve VI
d) Cranial nerve III
e) Cranial nerve V
1|Page
, GCU NUR 634 Midterm Exam Prep
Correct Answer: d) Cranial nerve III
Rationale:
Persistent diplopia with one eye covered suggests a neurologic cause rather than
binocular misalignment. Cranial nerve III controls most extraocular movements,
and dysfunction can result in diplopia. Proper cranial nerve assessment is crucial
in neurological evaluation.
A patient presents with lateral elbow pain that worsens with wrist extension.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Medial epicondylitis
b) Olecranon bursitis
c) Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis)
d) Ulnar nerve entrapment
e) Radial fracture
Correct Answer: c) Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis)
Rationale:
Tennis elbow involves inflammation of the extensor tendons at the lateral
epicondyle and presents with pain on the outer elbow, especially during wrist
extension. Medial epicondylitis presents on the inner elbow, helping
differentiate between the two conditions.
During incision and drainage of a lump, a “cheesy” substance is expressed. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
a) Lipoma
b) Abscess
c) Lymphadenopathy
d) Sebaceous cyst
e) Hematoma
2|Page
, GCU NUR 634 Midterm Exam Prep
Correct Answer: d) Sebaceous cyst
Rationale:
Sebaceous (epidermoid) cysts typically contain keratinous material that appears
thick and “cheesy.” This finding is characteristic and helps distinguish it from
abscesses (which contain pus) or lipomas (which are fatty and soft).
A patient has a cup-to-disc ratio of 1:2 on fundoscopic exam. What does this
finding suggest?
a) Increased risk for glaucoma
b) Normal finding with less suspicion for glaucoma
c) Optic nerve atrophy
d) Retinal detachment
e) Increased intraocular pressure
Correct Answer: b) Normal finding with less suspicion for glaucoma
Rationale:
A cup-to-disc ratio of 1:2 (0.5) is generally considered within normal limits. In
glaucoma, the optic cup enlarges, leading to a higher ratio (e.g., >0.6–0.7).
Therefore, a smaller ratio suggests a healthier optic nerve and lower suspicion
for glaucomatous damage.
A patient is extremely talkative during the visit and does not clearly state their
concern. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate to identify the
primary reason for the visit?
a) Interrupt the patient early to maintain time efficiency
b) Redirect the conversation and summarize key points
c) Allow the patient to continue without interruption
d) Ask only closed-ended questions
e) Focus only on objective findings
3|Page
, GCU NUR 634 Midterm Exam Prep
Correct Answer: b) Redirect the conversation and summarize key points
Rationale:
In clinical communication, patients who are overly talkative may unintentionally
obscure their chief complaint. The provider should use therapeutic
communication techniques such as redirection and summarization to guide the
conversation while still validating the patient. This ensures efficiency without
compromising rapport. Interrupting or relying solely on closed-ended questions
may hinder trust and miss important contextual details.
A patient presents with blood in the eye. Which of the following questions is
MOST important to include in the assessment?
a) Dietary habits
b) Sleep patterns
c) Recent trauma or injury to the eye
d) Family history of hypertension
e) Exercise routine
Correct Answer: c) Recent trauma or injury to the eye
Rationale:
Blood in the eye may indicate a subconjunctival hemorrhage, which is often
benign but can result from trauma, increased intrathoracic pressure (e.g.,
vomiting), or systemic issues. Asking about trauma helps differentiate between
harmless causes and more serious ocular injury. While other questions may
provide background information, trauma assessment is the most critical initial
step.
Which of the following is considered a normal age-related visual change?
a) Diplopia
b) Presbyopia
c) Scotoma
4|Page
