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LEIK FNP Practice Questions with Answers 100% Solved and Updated Exam

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LEIK FNP Practice Questions with Answers 100% Solved and Updated Exam

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LEIK FNP Practice
Questions with Answers
100% Solved and Updated
EXAM

🩺 General Practice & Diagnosis
Question 1:
The nurse practitioner notices a gray ring on the edge of both irises of an 80-year-old
female. The patient denies visual changes or pain. She reports that she has had the
"ring" for many years. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

 A) Arcus senilis
 B) Pinguecula
 C) Peripheral cataracts
 D) Macular degeneration

Correct Answer: A) Arcus senilis

Rationale: Arcus senilis is a common, benign finding in older adults. It appears as a gray
or white ring around the cornea and does not affect vision .

Question 2:
A 56-year-old mechanic is brought to your office complaining of heavy pressure in the
substernal area of his chest that is radiating to his jaw. The pain began while he was
lifting up a tire. He now appears pale and is diaphoretic. His blood pressure is 100/60
mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 50. What is the most appropriate action?

 A) Perform a 12-lead EKG
 B) Dial 9-1-1
 C) Administer a morphine injection for pain
 D) Observe the patient in the office

Correct Answer: B) Dial 9-1-1

,Rationale: This patient is exhibiting classic signs of a myocardial infarction (chest
pressure, radiating pain, diaphoresis, hypotension, bradycardia). The priority is to
activate Emergency Medical Services (EMS) immediately for transport to the emergency
department .


👶 Pediatrics & Adolescent Health
Question 3:
A neighbor's 14-year-old son, who is active in basketball, complains of pain and swelling
on both knees. On physical exam, there is tenderness over the tibial tuberosity of both
knees. Which of the following is most likely?

 A) Chondromalacia patella
 B) Left knee sprain
 C) Osgood-Schlatter disease
 D) Tear of the medial ligament

Correct Answer: C) Osgood-Schlatter disease

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common cause of knee pain in active
adolescents. It is characterized by inflammation of the patellar tendon at the tibial
tuberosity, often presenting bilaterally .

Question 4:
An infant who does not have a history of reactive airway disease and allergy has both
inspiratory and expiratory wheezing accompanied by fever and profuse clear nasal
discharge. What diagnosis is most likely?

 A) Bronchiolitis
 B) Tracheobronchitis
 C) Croup
 D) Asthma

Correct Answer: A) Bronchiolitis

Rationale: Bronchiolitis, often caused by RSV, is a common lower respiratory tract
infection in infants. It typically presents with wheezing, fever, and copious nasal
discharge, especially in the absence of a history of allergies or reactive airway disease .


👩 Women's Health & Obstetrics

,Question 5:
Treatment for mild preeclampsia includes all of the following except:

 A) Bed rest except for bathroom privileges
 B) Close monitoring of weight and blood pressure
 C) Close follow-up of urinary protein, serum creatinine, and platelet count
 D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure

Correct Answer: D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood
pressure

Rationale: Outpatient management of mild preeclampsia involves close monitoring and
activity modification. Oral antihypertensive medications like methyldopa are not
typically used as first-line outpatient treatment for mild cases; they are reserved for
more severe or inpatient settings .

Question 6:
A sexually active woman is complaining of amenorrhea and vaginal spotting. She
describes a sudden onset of severe, sharp, stabbing pain on the left lower quadrant that
radiates to her left shoulder. What is the most likely diagnosis?

 A) Mittelschmerz
 B) Ectopic pregnancy
 C) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
 D) Ruptured ovarian cyst

Correct Answer: B) Ectopic pregnancy

Rationale: The classic triad of ectopic pregnancy is amenorrhea, vaginal spotting, and
unilateral lower quadrant abdominal pain. Referred shoulder pain (from diaphragmatic
irritation due to intra-abdominal bleeding) is a key warning sign .


🩺 Mental Health & Neurology
Question 7:
One of the hallmark signs of depression is anhedonia, which means:

 A) lack of pleasure.
 B) excessive pleasure.
 C) inappropriate pleasure.
 D) rigid movements.

, Correct Answer: A) lack of pleasure

Rationale: Anhedonia is a core symptom of major depressive disorder and refers to the
loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyed .

Question 8:
Which of the following is indicated for the prophylactic treatment of migraine
headache?

 A) Ibuprofen (Motrin)
 B) Naproxen sodium (Anaprox)
 C) Propranolol (Inderal)
 D) Sumatriptan (Imitrex)

Correct Answer: C) Propranolol (Inderal)

Rationale: Prophylactic (preventive) migraine medications are taken regularly to reduce
the frequency and severity of attacks. Beta-blockers like propranolol and certain
antidepressants are first-line for prevention. Ibuprofen, naproxen, and sumatriptan are
used for acute (abortive) treatment .


💊 Pharmacology & Medication Effects
Question 9:
A 72-year-old woman has been on hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg for many years to
control her Stage II hypertension. Her blood pressure (BP) at this visit is 168/96. She is
currently complaining of pain on her right hip and on both knees. She has increased her
dose of ibuprofen (Motrin) from 400 mg 3 times day (TID) to 800 mg TID. Which of the
following statements is the best explanation of the effects of ibuprofen (Motrin) on her
disease?

 A) It increases the chances of adverse effects to her health
 B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the
diuretic
 C) It prolongs the therapeutic effects of hydrochlorothiazide and other diuretics
 D) None of the statements are true

Correct Answer: B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the
effectiveness of the diuretic.

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