NURS 5433 FNP II Midterm Exam Review 2026/2027 UTA
1. A 4-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of high fever, drooling, and a
muffled voice. The child is sitting in a tripod position. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Croup
B. Epiglottitis
C. Bacterial Tracheitis
D. Foreign Body Aspiration
Answer: B
Rationale: Epiglottitis is characterized by the ‘4 Ds’: drooling, dysphagia, dysphonia, and
distressed inspiratory efforts, often with the tripod position.
2. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for a 2-year-old child
diagnosed with acute otitis media (AOM) who has no allergies?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Amoxicillin-Clavulanate
Answer: B
Rationale: High-dose amoxicillin is the recommended first-line therapy for AOM in
children without penicillin allergy.
,3. In the development of a 6-month-old infant, which milestone is typically
expected?
A. Walking while holding onto furniture
B. Using a pincer grasp to pick up small objects
C. Sitting with support or briefly without support
D. Saying two or three clear words
Answer: C
Rationale: By 6 months, infants usually start sitting with support; walking and pincer
grasp occur later (9-12 months).
4. A 14-year-old female is at Tanner Stage 2 for breast development. What is the
characteristic feature of this stage?
A. Secondary mound formed by the areola
B. Further enlargement of breast and areola with no separation of contour
C. Breast bud formation with enlargement of the areolar diameter
D. Nipple elevation only
Answer: C
Rationale: Tanner Stage 2 is characterized by the breast bud (thelarche), where the breast
and papilla are elevated as a small mound.
5. According to the CDC, at what age should the first dose of the Measles,
Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine be administered?
A. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 12-15 months
D. 4-6 years
Answer: C
Rationale: The first dose of MMR is recommended between 12 and 15 months of age.
, 6. A 10-year-old boy presents with a ‘barky’ cough and stridor that worsens at
night. Which virus is the most common cause of this condition?
A. Parainfluenza virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
D. Rhinovirus
Answer: A
Rationale: Parainfluenza virus is the most common cause of Croup
(laryngotracheobronchitis).
7. What is the screening tool most commonly used to screen for Autism
Spectrum Disorder in toddlers at the 18- and 24-month visits?
A. M-CHAT-R/F
B. PHQ-9
C. ASQ-3
D. GADS
Answer: A
Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is the standard tool
for early autism screening.
8. An 8-year-old child presents with honey-colored crusted lesions around the
mouth. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Impetigo
B. Atopic Dermatitis
C. Herpes Simplex
D. Cellulitis
Answer: A
Rationale: Honey-colored crusting is the hallmark clinical presentation of non-bullous
impetigo, usually caused by Staph aureus or Strep pyogenes.
1. A 4-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of high fever, drooling, and a
muffled voice. The child is sitting in a tripod position. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Croup
B. Epiglottitis
C. Bacterial Tracheitis
D. Foreign Body Aspiration
Answer: B
Rationale: Epiglottitis is characterized by the ‘4 Ds’: drooling, dysphagia, dysphonia, and
distressed inspiratory efforts, often with the tripod position.
2. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for a 2-year-old child
diagnosed with acute otitis media (AOM) who has no allergies?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Amoxicillin-Clavulanate
Answer: B
Rationale: High-dose amoxicillin is the recommended first-line therapy for AOM in
children without penicillin allergy.
,3. In the development of a 6-month-old infant, which milestone is typically
expected?
A. Walking while holding onto furniture
B. Using a pincer grasp to pick up small objects
C. Sitting with support or briefly without support
D. Saying two or three clear words
Answer: C
Rationale: By 6 months, infants usually start sitting with support; walking and pincer
grasp occur later (9-12 months).
4. A 14-year-old female is at Tanner Stage 2 for breast development. What is the
characteristic feature of this stage?
A. Secondary mound formed by the areola
B. Further enlargement of breast and areola with no separation of contour
C. Breast bud formation with enlargement of the areolar diameter
D. Nipple elevation only
Answer: C
Rationale: Tanner Stage 2 is characterized by the breast bud (thelarche), where the breast
and papilla are elevated as a small mound.
5. According to the CDC, at what age should the first dose of the Measles,
Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine be administered?
A. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 12-15 months
D. 4-6 years
Answer: C
Rationale: The first dose of MMR is recommended between 12 and 15 months of age.
, 6. A 10-year-old boy presents with a ‘barky’ cough and stridor that worsens at
night. Which virus is the most common cause of this condition?
A. Parainfluenza virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
D. Rhinovirus
Answer: A
Rationale: Parainfluenza virus is the most common cause of Croup
(laryngotracheobronchitis).
7. What is the screening tool most commonly used to screen for Autism
Spectrum Disorder in toddlers at the 18- and 24-month visits?
A. M-CHAT-R/F
B. PHQ-9
C. ASQ-3
D. GADS
Answer: A
Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is the standard tool
for early autism screening.
8. An 8-year-old child presents with honey-colored crusted lesions around the
mouth. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Impetigo
B. Atopic Dermatitis
C. Herpes Simplex
D. Cellulitis
Answer: A
Rationale: Honey-colored crusting is the hallmark clinical presentation of non-bullous
impetigo, usually caused by Staph aureus or Strep pyogenes.
