NSG 3100 EXAM 3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PRACTICE QUESTIONS (2 LATEST VERSIONS)
WITH SOLUTIONS NEWEST COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS|
ALREADY GRADED A+
Question 1
When obtaining a capillary blood specimen to measure blood glucose, which action is most
essential for the nurse to perform to ensure an accurate reading?
A) Use a site with calloused skin to minimize pain.
B) Squeeze the finger tightly to force blood out.
C) Ensure there is good blood flow at the puncture site by warming the area if necessary.
D) Use an alcohol swab and immediately puncture the skin while it is still wet.
E) Use the center of the fingertip for the puncture.
Correct Answer: C) Ensure there is good blood flow at the puncture site by warming the
area if necessary.
Rationale: Good peripheral circulation is vital for an accurate capillary glucose reading. If
the finger is cold or has poor perfusion, the glucose concentration may not reflect systemic
levels accurately. Warming the site increases vasodilation and blood flow. Squeezing the
finger (milking) is contraindicated as it can cause hemolysis or dilute the specimen with
interstitial fluid, leading to inaccurate results.
Question 2
A nurse is performing a guaiac fecal occult blood test (gFOBT). Which of the following findings
would the nurse correctly interpret as a positive result for the presence of blood?
A) The specimen turns green within 60 seconds.
B) The specimen turns blue within 30 to 60 seconds.
C) The specimen remains the color of the stool.
D) The specimen turns bright red.
E) The specimen turns yellow.
Correct Answer: B) The specimen turns blue within 30 to 60 seconds.
Rationale: In a guaiac-based fecal occult blood test, a blue color change indicates a positive
result, meaning that heme (a component of hemoglobin) was detected in the stool. A green
color is not indicative of a positive result in this specific chemical reaction. Positive results
require further investigation to rule out colorectal cancer, ulcers, or other gastrointestinal
bleeding sources.
Question 3
A nurse is instructing a female patient on how to obtain a "clean catch" (midstream) urine
specimen. Which instruction is the most important to ensure the sample is not contaminated?
A) Collect the very first stream of urine in the cup.
B) Stop the stream of urine before the bladder is empty and then collect.
C) Void a small amount of urine into the toilet before collecting the specimen in the cup.
D) Avoid cleaning the perineal area to keep the natural flora.
E) Fill the specimen cup to the very brim.
Correct Answer: C) Void a small amount of urine before collecting the specimen
, Page 2
Rationale: The "clean catch" technique is designed to minimize contamination from the
external urethral meatus and vaginal secretions. By voiding a small amount into the toilet
first (the initial stream), the patient flushes away any bacteria residing at the urethral
opening. The "midstream" portion is then collected, as it most accurately represents the
contents of the bladder.
Question 4
A nurse needs to obtain a sterile urine specimen from a patient who has had an indwelling
(Foley) catheter for 24 hours. What is the correct procedure?
A) Disconnect the catheter from the drainage bag and catch the urine in a cup.
B) Empty the urine from the bottom of the drainage bag into a sterile container.
C) Use a sterile syringe to withdraw urine from the specific needleless sampling port on the
catheter tubing.
D) Insert a new straight catheter alongside the indwelling one.
E) Clamp the catheter for 4 hours and then collect from the bag.
Correct Answer: C) using a syringe to withdraw urine from the catheter tubing port
Rationale: Urine in the drainage bag is considered contaminated because bacteria can grow
rapidly in the stagnant environment of the bag. To obtain a sterile specimen from an
indwelling system, the nurse must use the sampling port. The port is cleaned with an
antiseptic, and a syringe is used to aspirate fresh urine that has not yet reached the bag.
The system should remain closed to prevent the introduction of bacteria (CAUTI
prevention).
Question 5
A patient is scheduled for a KUB. The nurse explains to the patient that this procedure is:
A) A contrast-dye study of the gallbladder.
B) An ultrasound of the pelvic region.
C) An X-ray of the abdomen to visualize the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
D) An invasive procedure requiring a signed consent form.
E) A type of nuclear medicine scan.
Correct Answer: C) KUB
Rationale: KUB stands for Kidneys, Ureters, and Bladder. It is a plain frontal supine
radiograph (X-ray) of the abdomen. It is frequently used as a preliminary screening tool to
assess the position and size of the renal structures or to detect the presence of kidney stones
(calculi) and intestinal obstructions.
Question 6
A nurse is preparing a patient for an echocardiogram. Which description of the procedure is most
accurate?
A) An invasive test where a catheter is threaded into the heart.
B) A graphic recording of the heart's electrical activity via electrodes.
C) A noninvasive visualization of the heart structures and blood flow using ultrasound.
, Page 3
D) An X-ray of the chest focusing on the heart's size.
E) A test requiring the injection of radioactive isotopes.
Correct Answer: C) Visualization of the structures of the heart by using ultrasound
Rationale: An echocardiogram uses high-frequency sound waves (ultrasound) to create
images of the heart's valves, chambers, and wall motion. It is a noninvasive, safe procedure
that provides information about the heart's pumping strength (ejection fraction) and
structural integrity without the use of radiation or contrast dye.
Question 7
When preparing a patient for Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), what is the most critical
screening question the nurse must ask?
A) "Are you allergic to shellfish or iodine?"
B) "When was the last time you ate?"
C) "Do you have any metal implants, pacemakers, or shrapnel in your body?"
D) "Are you afraid of the dark?"
E) "Have you ever had an X-ray before?"
Correct Answer: C) Any metal in body?
Rationale: MRI uses powerful magnetic fields to align hydrogen atoms in the body. If a
patient has ferromagnetic metal (like certain pacemakers, aneurysm clips, or steel
fragments) inside their body, the magnet can pull or heat those objects, causing severe
internal injury or death. This is the highest priority safety screening for this diagnostic test.
Question 8
A patient is undergoing a thoracentesis. The nurse understands that this procedure involves the
removal of fluid from which of the following?
A) The abdominal cavity.
B) The spinal canal.
C) The pleural space.
D) The pericardial sac.
E) The bladder.
Correct Answer: C) pleural space
Rationale: Thoracentesis is a procedure in which a needle is inserted through the chest wall
into the pleural space (the area between the lungs and the chest wall). It is performed to
remove excess fluid (pleural effusion) to improve breathing or to obtain fluid samples for
diagnostic analysis.
Question 9
During a thoracentesis, which of the following actions by the nurse is inappropriate?
A) Monitoring the patient's respiratory rate and oxygen saturation.
B) Encouraging the patient to remain very still.
C) Instructing the patient to cough periodically to help move the fluid.
D) Positioning the patient sitting on the edge of the bed leaning over a bedside table.
, Page 4
E) Labeling the specimens at the bedside.
Correct Answer: C) Have the patient cough periodically during the procedure
Rationale: During the procedure, the patient must remain still and avoid coughing, deep
breathing, or sudden movements. These actions increase the risk of the needle puncturing
the lung (visceral pleura), which could lead to a pneumothorax (collapsed lung). The
nurse's role is to support the patient and monitor for signs of distress.
Question 10
A nurse needs to estimate the volume of urine remaining in a patient's bladder after they have
voided. Which noninvasive method is most appropriate?
A) Performing a straight catheterization.
B) palpating the symphysis pubis.
C) Using a portable ultrasound bladder scanner.
D) Increasing the patient's fluid intake.
E) Checking the specific gravity.
Correct Answer: C) Bladder Scanner
Rationale: A bladder scanner is a noninvasive, bedside ultrasound device that calculates the
volume of urine in the bladder. It is the preferred method to check for post-void residual
(PVR) because it carries no risk of infection, unlike catheterization, which is an invasive
procedure.
Question 11
In a healthy adult, the nurse expects the physical characteristics of urine to include which of the
following smells?
A) Sweet and fruity.
B) Strong ammonia.
C) Faintly aromatic.
D) Foul and pungent.
E) Odorless.
Correct Answer: C) aromatic
Rationale: Freshly voided urine has a characteristic "aromatic" odor. As urine stands,
bacteria decompose urea into ammonia, creating a strong ammonia smell. A sweet/fruity
smell may indicate ketoacidosis, while a foul smell usually indicates a urinary tract
infection.
Question 12
What is the minimum acceptable hourly urine output for an adult patient to ensure adequate renal
perfusion?
A) 10 mL
B) 20 mL
C) 30 mL
D) 60 mL
WITH SOLUTIONS NEWEST COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS|
ALREADY GRADED A+
Question 1
When obtaining a capillary blood specimen to measure blood glucose, which action is most
essential for the nurse to perform to ensure an accurate reading?
A) Use a site with calloused skin to minimize pain.
B) Squeeze the finger tightly to force blood out.
C) Ensure there is good blood flow at the puncture site by warming the area if necessary.
D) Use an alcohol swab and immediately puncture the skin while it is still wet.
E) Use the center of the fingertip for the puncture.
Correct Answer: C) Ensure there is good blood flow at the puncture site by warming the
area if necessary.
Rationale: Good peripheral circulation is vital for an accurate capillary glucose reading. If
the finger is cold or has poor perfusion, the glucose concentration may not reflect systemic
levels accurately. Warming the site increases vasodilation and blood flow. Squeezing the
finger (milking) is contraindicated as it can cause hemolysis or dilute the specimen with
interstitial fluid, leading to inaccurate results.
Question 2
A nurse is performing a guaiac fecal occult blood test (gFOBT). Which of the following findings
would the nurse correctly interpret as a positive result for the presence of blood?
A) The specimen turns green within 60 seconds.
B) The specimen turns blue within 30 to 60 seconds.
C) The specimen remains the color of the stool.
D) The specimen turns bright red.
E) The specimen turns yellow.
Correct Answer: B) The specimen turns blue within 30 to 60 seconds.
Rationale: In a guaiac-based fecal occult blood test, a blue color change indicates a positive
result, meaning that heme (a component of hemoglobin) was detected in the stool. A green
color is not indicative of a positive result in this specific chemical reaction. Positive results
require further investigation to rule out colorectal cancer, ulcers, or other gastrointestinal
bleeding sources.
Question 3
A nurse is instructing a female patient on how to obtain a "clean catch" (midstream) urine
specimen. Which instruction is the most important to ensure the sample is not contaminated?
A) Collect the very first stream of urine in the cup.
B) Stop the stream of urine before the bladder is empty and then collect.
C) Void a small amount of urine into the toilet before collecting the specimen in the cup.
D) Avoid cleaning the perineal area to keep the natural flora.
E) Fill the specimen cup to the very brim.
Correct Answer: C) Void a small amount of urine before collecting the specimen
, Page 2
Rationale: The "clean catch" technique is designed to minimize contamination from the
external urethral meatus and vaginal secretions. By voiding a small amount into the toilet
first (the initial stream), the patient flushes away any bacteria residing at the urethral
opening. The "midstream" portion is then collected, as it most accurately represents the
contents of the bladder.
Question 4
A nurse needs to obtain a sterile urine specimen from a patient who has had an indwelling
(Foley) catheter for 24 hours. What is the correct procedure?
A) Disconnect the catheter from the drainage bag and catch the urine in a cup.
B) Empty the urine from the bottom of the drainage bag into a sterile container.
C) Use a sterile syringe to withdraw urine from the specific needleless sampling port on the
catheter tubing.
D) Insert a new straight catheter alongside the indwelling one.
E) Clamp the catheter for 4 hours and then collect from the bag.
Correct Answer: C) using a syringe to withdraw urine from the catheter tubing port
Rationale: Urine in the drainage bag is considered contaminated because bacteria can grow
rapidly in the stagnant environment of the bag. To obtain a sterile specimen from an
indwelling system, the nurse must use the sampling port. The port is cleaned with an
antiseptic, and a syringe is used to aspirate fresh urine that has not yet reached the bag.
The system should remain closed to prevent the introduction of bacteria (CAUTI
prevention).
Question 5
A patient is scheduled for a KUB. The nurse explains to the patient that this procedure is:
A) A contrast-dye study of the gallbladder.
B) An ultrasound of the pelvic region.
C) An X-ray of the abdomen to visualize the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
D) An invasive procedure requiring a signed consent form.
E) A type of nuclear medicine scan.
Correct Answer: C) KUB
Rationale: KUB stands for Kidneys, Ureters, and Bladder. It is a plain frontal supine
radiograph (X-ray) of the abdomen. It is frequently used as a preliminary screening tool to
assess the position and size of the renal structures or to detect the presence of kidney stones
(calculi) and intestinal obstructions.
Question 6
A nurse is preparing a patient for an echocardiogram. Which description of the procedure is most
accurate?
A) An invasive test where a catheter is threaded into the heart.
B) A graphic recording of the heart's electrical activity via electrodes.
C) A noninvasive visualization of the heart structures and blood flow using ultrasound.
, Page 3
D) An X-ray of the chest focusing on the heart's size.
E) A test requiring the injection of radioactive isotopes.
Correct Answer: C) Visualization of the structures of the heart by using ultrasound
Rationale: An echocardiogram uses high-frequency sound waves (ultrasound) to create
images of the heart's valves, chambers, and wall motion. It is a noninvasive, safe procedure
that provides information about the heart's pumping strength (ejection fraction) and
structural integrity without the use of radiation or contrast dye.
Question 7
When preparing a patient for Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), what is the most critical
screening question the nurse must ask?
A) "Are you allergic to shellfish or iodine?"
B) "When was the last time you ate?"
C) "Do you have any metal implants, pacemakers, or shrapnel in your body?"
D) "Are you afraid of the dark?"
E) "Have you ever had an X-ray before?"
Correct Answer: C) Any metal in body?
Rationale: MRI uses powerful magnetic fields to align hydrogen atoms in the body. If a
patient has ferromagnetic metal (like certain pacemakers, aneurysm clips, or steel
fragments) inside their body, the magnet can pull or heat those objects, causing severe
internal injury or death. This is the highest priority safety screening for this diagnostic test.
Question 8
A patient is undergoing a thoracentesis. The nurse understands that this procedure involves the
removal of fluid from which of the following?
A) The abdominal cavity.
B) The spinal canal.
C) The pleural space.
D) The pericardial sac.
E) The bladder.
Correct Answer: C) pleural space
Rationale: Thoracentesis is a procedure in which a needle is inserted through the chest wall
into the pleural space (the area between the lungs and the chest wall). It is performed to
remove excess fluid (pleural effusion) to improve breathing or to obtain fluid samples for
diagnostic analysis.
Question 9
During a thoracentesis, which of the following actions by the nurse is inappropriate?
A) Monitoring the patient's respiratory rate and oxygen saturation.
B) Encouraging the patient to remain very still.
C) Instructing the patient to cough periodically to help move the fluid.
D) Positioning the patient sitting on the edge of the bed leaning over a bedside table.
, Page 4
E) Labeling the specimens at the bedside.
Correct Answer: C) Have the patient cough periodically during the procedure
Rationale: During the procedure, the patient must remain still and avoid coughing, deep
breathing, or sudden movements. These actions increase the risk of the needle puncturing
the lung (visceral pleura), which could lead to a pneumothorax (collapsed lung). The
nurse's role is to support the patient and monitor for signs of distress.
Question 10
A nurse needs to estimate the volume of urine remaining in a patient's bladder after they have
voided. Which noninvasive method is most appropriate?
A) Performing a straight catheterization.
B) palpating the symphysis pubis.
C) Using a portable ultrasound bladder scanner.
D) Increasing the patient's fluid intake.
E) Checking the specific gravity.
Correct Answer: C) Bladder Scanner
Rationale: A bladder scanner is a noninvasive, bedside ultrasound device that calculates the
volume of urine in the bladder. It is the preferred method to check for post-void residual
(PVR) because it carries no risk of infection, unlike catheterization, which is an invasive
procedure.
Question 11
In a healthy adult, the nurse expects the physical characteristics of urine to include which of the
following smells?
A) Sweet and fruity.
B) Strong ammonia.
C) Faintly aromatic.
D) Foul and pungent.
E) Odorless.
Correct Answer: C) aromatic
Rationale: Freshly voided urine has a characteristic "aromatic" odor. As urine stands,
bacteria decompose urea into ammonia, creating a strong ammonia smell. A sweet/fruity
smell may indicate ketoacidosis, while a foul smell usually indicates a urinary tract
infection.
Question 12
What is the minimum acceptable hourly urine output for an adult patient to ensure adequate renal
perfusion?
A) 10 mL
B) 20 mL
C) 30 mL
D) 60 mL
