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NUR 100 Pharmacology Exam 2026/2027 Actual
Exam | Fortis College Real Exam Questions &
Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales |
Graded A+ | Pass Guaranteed
Section 1: Pharmacological Principles
Q1: A patient is receiving morphine sulfate 4 mg IV for severe postoperative pain. Which of the
following assessments is MOST important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Blood pressure.
B. Respiratory rate. [CORRECT]
C. Temperature.
D. Bowel sounds.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Opioids like morphine cause respiratory depression as a serious adverse effect.
Respiratory rate is the priority assessment (ABCs). Options A, C, and D are important but not the
priority with opioid administration.
Q2: When administering a medication, the nurse checks the "Right Dose." Which of the
following actions best demonstrates this check?
A. Asking the patient if the dose looks correct.
B. Comparing the medication administration record (MAR) with the drug label. [CORRECT]
C. Asking another nurse to calculate the dose.
D. Checking the patient's identification band.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the MAR against the drug label ensures the dose matches the order. Asking
the patient (A) is inappropriate. While independent double-checks (C) are used for high-alert
,2
drugs, the standard right dose involves comparing the order to the label. Checking the ID band
(D) validates the "Right Patient."
Q3: A drug that causes a therapeutic effect is called:
A. An agonist. [CORRECT]
B. An antagonist.
C. A placebo.
D. A substrate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An agonist binds to a receptor and produces a response (therapeutic effect). An
antagonist (B) blocks the response. A placebo (C) has no active ingredient.
Q4: Which of the following routes of administration has the fastest onset of action?
A. Oral (PO).
B. Intramuscular (IM).
C. Intravenous (IV). [CORRECT]
D. Subcutaneous (SubQ).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The IV route bypasses absorption barriers and enters the bloodstream immediately,
providing the fastest onset. Oral (A) has the slowest onset due to the first-pass effect and
absorption time.
Q5: A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of over-the-counter (OTC) medications. Which
statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I should read the label carefully before taking the medicine."
B. "OTC drugs are safe and can't cause side effects." [CORRECT]
C. "I need to tell my doctor about any OTC drugs I take."
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D. "I should follow the dosing instructions on the bottle."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OTC drugs are effective but can cause significant side effects and drug interactions.
The belief that they "can't cause side effects" is a dangerous misconception.
Q6: The "first-pass effect" applies to which route of administration?
A. Intramuscular.
B. Oral. [CORRECT]
C. Sublingual.
D. Intravenous.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first-pass effect occurs when a drug is absorbed from the GI tract, passes through
the portal vein to the liver, and is extensively metabolized before reaching systemic circulation.
This is specific to oral administration.
Q7: Which statement correctly describes a Schedule II controlled substance?
A. Drugs with a high potential for abuse but accepted medical use. [CORRECT]
B. Drugs with a low potential for abuse.
C. Drugs with no accepted medical use in the US.
D. Drugs available without a prescription.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse but currently accepted medical use
(e.g., morphine, oxycodone). Schedule I (C) has no medical use. Schedule V (B) has the lowest
potential.
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Q8: A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. The provider's order is illegible. What is the
nurse's best action?
A. Ask a colleague what the order says.
B. Administer a typical dose for that medication.
C. Contact the provider for clarification. [CORRECT]
D. Wait until the next shift to see if the order becomes clear.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should never guess or administer medication based on an illegible order.
Contacting the provider for clarification ensures patient safety.
Q9: Pharmacokinetics is defined as the study of:
A. How drugs affect the body.
B. How the body affects drugs. [CORRECT]
C. The cost of drugs.
D. The legal aspects of drug administration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes the movement of drugs through the body (absorption,
distribution, metabolism, excretion). Pharmacodynamics (A) is how drugs affect the body.
Q10: A nurse witnesses a medication error made by a colleague. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take?
A. Report the error only if the patient is harmed.
B. Ignore it to avoid getting the colleague in trouble.
C. Report the error immediately according to facility policy. [CORRECT]
D. Fix the error without telling anyone.
NUR 100 Pharmacology Exam 2026/2027 Actual
Exam | Fortis College Real Exam Questions &
Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales |
Graded A+ | Pass Guaranteed
Section 1: Pharmacological Principles
Q1: A patient is receiving morphine sulfate 4 mg IV for severe postoperative pain. Which of the
following assessments is MOST important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Blood pressure.
B. Respiratory rate. [CORRECT]
C. Temperature.
D. Bowel sounds.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Opioids like morphine cause respiratory depression as a serious adverse effect.
Respiratory rate is the priority assessment (ABCs). Options A, C, and D are important but not the
priority with opioid administration.
Q2: When administering a medication, the nurse checks the "Right Dose." Which of the
following actions best demonstrates this check?
A. Asking the patient if the dose looks correct.
B. Comparing the medication administration record (MAR) with the drug label. [CORRECT]
C. Asking another nurse to calculate the dose.
D. Checking the patient's identification band.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the MAR against the drug label ensures the dose matches the order. Asking
the patient (A) is inappropriate. While independent double-checks (C) are used for high-alert
,2
drugs, the standard right dose involves comparing the order to the label. Checking the ID band
(D) validates the "Right Patient."
Q3: A drug that causes a therapeutic effect is called:
A. An agonist. [CORRECT]
B. An antagonist.
C. A placebo.
D. A substrate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An agonist binds to a receptor and produces a response (therapeutic effect). An
antagonist (B) blocks the response. A placebo (C) has no active ingredient.
Q4: Which of the following routes of administration has the fastest onset of action?
A. Oral (PO).
B. Intramuscular (IM).
C. Intravenous (IV). [CORRECT]
D. Subcutaneous (SubQ).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The IV route bypasses absorption barriers and enters the bloodstream immediately,
providing the fastest onset. Oral (A) has the slowest onset due to the first-pass effect and
absorption time.
Q5: A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of over-the-counter (OTC) medications. Which
statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I should read the label carefully before taking the medicine."
B. "OTC drugs are safe and can't cause side effects." [CORRECT]
C. "I need to tell my doctor about any OTC drugs I take."
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D. "I should follow the dosing instructions on the bottle."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OTC drugs are effective but can cause significant side effects and drug interactions.
The belief that they "can't cause side effects" is a dangerous misconception.
Q6: The "first-pass effect" applies to which route of administration?
A. Intramuscular.
B. Oral. [CORRECT]
C. Sublingual.
D. Intravenous.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first-pass effect occurs when a drug is absorbed from the GI tract, passes through
the portal vein to the liver, and is extensively metabolized before reaching systemic circulation.
This is specific to oral administration.
Q7: Which statement correctly describes a Schedule II controlled substance?
A. Drugs with a high potential for abuse but accepted medical use. [CORRECT]
B. Drugs with a low potential for abuse.
C. Drugs with no accepted medical use in the US.
D. Drugs available without a prescription.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse but currently accepted medical use
(e.g., morphine, oxycodone). Schedule I (C) has no medical use. Schedule V (B) has the lowest
potential.
, 4
Q8: A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. The provider's order is illegible. What is the
nurse's best action?
A. Ask a colleague what the order says.
B. Administer a typical dose for that medication.
C. Contact the provider for clarification. [CORRECT]
D. Wait until the next shift to see if the order becomes clear.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should never guess or administer medication based on an illegible order.
Contacting the provider for clarification ensures patient safety.
Q9: Pharmacokinetics is defined as the study of:
A. How drugs affect the body.
B. How the body affects drugs. [CORRECT]
C. The cost of drugs.
D. The legal aspects of drug administration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes the movement of drugs through the body (absorption,
distribution, metabolism, excretion). Pharmacodynamics (A) is how drugs affect the body.
Q10: A nurse witnesses a medication error made by a colleague. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take?
A. Report the error only if the patient is harmed.
B. Ignore it to avoid getting the colleague in trouble.
C. Report the error immediately according to facility policy. [CORRECT]
D. Fix the error without telling anyone.
