CEA Week 1 Exam PREP
CEA WEEK 1 EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH DETAILED RATIONALES |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Congestive heart failure
Pulmonary embolism
Acute myocardial infarction
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - Correct Answer-Congestive Heart Failure
Rationale
Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure as
it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and
crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is
possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated
this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea
on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
An older adult female presents for her annual examination. She has been on
antihypertensive medications for over 20 years, with good control. Laboratory
1|Page
, CEA Week 1 Exam PREP
values are within normal ranges. The nurse practitioner is concerned about the
patient's cardiac health risks, due her to weight and her waist circumference.
According to the AHA guidelines, which of the following goals is expected for this
patient?
Physical activity for 60 minutes daily, for a minimum of 6 days a week
Physical activity for 30 minutes daily, for a minimum of 5 days a week
Physical activity for 60 minutes daily, 7 days a week
Physical activity for 30 minutes daily, 7 days a week - Correct Answer-Physical
activity for 30 minutes daily, for a minimum of 5 days a week
A 75-year-old patient has just been discharged to a nursing facility following
hospitalization for an exacerbation of chronic heart failure. The patient's condition
is classified as stage C, which involves known structural heart disease with
previous or present symptoms of failure. If the patient is adherent to current
clinical guidelines, the nurse practitioner who is visiting can expect treatment to
include which of the following medications?
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), lisinopril (Zestril), amlodipine (Norvasc)
Furosemide (Lasix), lisinopril (Zestril), carvedilol (Coreg)
Furosemide (Lasix), prazosin (Minipress), propranolol (Inderal)
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), metoprolol (Lopressor), losartan (Cozaar) - Correct
Answer-Furosemide (Lasix), lisinopril (Zestril), carvedilol (Coreg)
Rationale
2|Page
, CEA Week 1 Exam PREP
Goal directed therapy for reducing chronic symptoms of heart failure, and
hopefully improving ejection fraction in a patient with heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction should include carvedilol (Coreg) furosemide (Lasix) or another
loop diuretic, and an ACE inhibitor/ARB or ARB/ARNI such as sacubitril/valsartan
(Entresto). Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated and heart failure such as
amlodipine (Norvasc).
Your patient presents with bradycardia, severe nausea, and substernal pain. STEMI
was identified on the EKG. Which region of the heart is most likely involved?
Lateral Wall
Anterior Wall
Inferior Wall
Septal Wall - Correct Answer-Inferior Wall
Rationale
The inferior wall, fed by the right coronary artery is commonly associated with
these symptoms. Remember right equals rate as it is the blood supply for the SA
and AV nodes in most patients. Dyspepsia is common in RCA territory injury due to
vagal stimulation not typical of other areas.
What is the key long-term benefit of using carvedilol for patients with coronary
artery disease and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
Increase in libido
Reduction in cardiac output
3|Page
, CEA Week 1 Exam PREP
Baseline reduction of blood pressure
Potential increase in ejection fraction - Correct Answer-Potential increase in
ejection fraction
Rationale
EF increase is a key reason for using carvedilol over metoprolol for patients with
low EF states. Libido unfortunately can be negatively impacted by any beta
blocker. Cardiac output should only improve with long term use, not decrease, and
beta blockers may reduce blood pressure slightly, but that is not their key long-
term benefit. In fact, they are not even considered for routine anti-hypertensive
management per JNC-8 guidelines.
Your patient presents with pale, waxy legs, weak peripheral pulses, and states he
is having difficulty walking great distances due to the pain in his calves. The most
appropriate non-invasive test to evaluate his leg vascular flow quality is which of
the following exams?
Exercise stress test
Angiogram of the leg with runoff
Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
Bilateral popliteal blood pressures - Correct Answer-Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
Rationale
ABI is the most effective way to evaluate vascular flow in a non-invasive way, and
the angiogram of the leg with runoff is the best invasive way. Bilateral popliteal
blood pressures would not show discretion between upper and lower body if both
4|Page
CEA WEEK 1 EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH DETAILED RATIONALES |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Congestive heart failure
Pulmonary embolism
Acute myocardial infarction
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - Correct Answer-Congestive Heart Failure
Rationale
Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure as
it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and
crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is
possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated
this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea
on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
An older adult female presents for her annual examination. She has been on
antihypertensive medications for over 20 years, with good control. Laboratory
1|Page
, CEA Week 1 Exam PREP
values are within normal ranges. The nurse practitioner is concerned about the
patient's cardiac health risks, due her to weight and her waist circumference.
According to the AHA guidelines, which of the following goals is expected for this
patient?
Physical activity for 60 minutes daily, for a minimum of 6 days a week
Physical activity for 30 minutes daily, for a minimum of 5 days a week
Physical activity for 60 minutes daily, 7 days a week
Physical activity for 30 minutes daily, 7 days a week - Correct Answer-Physical
activity for 30 minutes daily, for a minimum of 5 days a week
A 75-year-old patient has just been discharged to a nursing facility following
hospitalization for an exacerbation of chronic heart failure. The patient's condition
is classified as stage C, which involves known structural heart disease with
previous or present symptoms of failure. If the patient is adherent to current
clinical guidelines, the nurse practitioner who is visiting can expect treatment to
include which of the following medications?
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), lisinopril (Zestril), amlodipine (Norvasc)
Furosemide (Lasix), lisinopril (Zestril), carvedilol (Coreg)
Furosemide (Lasix), prazosin (Minipress), propranolol (Inderal)
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), metoprolol (Lopressor), losartan (Cozaar) - Correct
Answer-Furosemide (Lasix), lisinopril (Zestril), carvedilol (Coreg)
Rationale
2|Page
, CEA Week 1 Exam PREP
Goal directed therapy for reducing chronic symptoms of heart failure, and
hopefully improving ejection fraction in a patient with heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction should include carvedilol (Coreg) furosemide (Lasix) or another
loop diuretic, and an ACE inhibitor/ARB or ARB/ARNI such as sacubitril/valsartan
(Entresto). Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated and heart failure such as
amlodipine (Norvasc).
Your patient presents with bradycardia, severe nausea, and substernal pain. STEMI
was identified on the EKG. Which region of the heart is most likely involved?
Lateral Wall
Anterior Wall
Inferior Wall
Septal Wall - Correct Answer-Inferior Wall
Rationale
The inferior wall, fed by the right coronary artery is commonly associated with
these symptoms. Remember right equals rate as it is the blood supply for the SA
and AV nodes in most patients. Dyspepsia is common in RCA territory injury due to
vagal stimulation not typical of other areas.
What is the key long-term benefit of using carvedilol for patients with coronary
artery disease and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
Increase in libido
Reduction in cardiac output
3|Page
, CEA Week 1 Exam PREP
Baseline reduction of blood pressure
Potential increase in ejection fraction - Correct Answer-Potential increase in
ejection fraction
Rationale
EF increase is a key reason for using carvedilol over metoprolol for patients with
low EF states. Libido unfortunately can be negatively impacted by any beta
blocker. Cardiac output should only improve with long term use, not decrease, and
beta blockers may reduce blood pressure slightly, but that is not their key long-
term benefit. In fact, they are not even considered for routine anti-hypertensive
management per JNC-8 guidelines.
Your patient presents with pale, waxy legs, weak peripheral pulses, and states he
is having difficulty walking great distances due to the pain in his calves. The most
appropriate non-invasive test to evaluate his leg vascular flow quality is which of
the following exams?
Exercise stress test
Angiogram of the leg with runoff
Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
Bilateral popliteal blood pressures - Correct Answer-Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
Rationale
ABI is the most effective way to evaluate vascular flow in a non-invasive way, and
the angiogram of the leg with runoff is the best invasive way. Bilateral popliteal
blood pressures would not show discretion between upper and lower body if both
4|Page
