NGR6002 Exam 1 Study Guide Exam
with All Actual Answers 2025-2026
Updated.
Screening for colon cancer is which level of prevention? - Answer secondary
A sensitive test has which of the following characteristics: - Answer few false negatives
A patient comes to your office with questions about lab work done by another provider. She
tells you that the provider said not to worry about the positive test because there are a lot of
false positives for this particular lab test. You know that this means the test lacks: - Answer
specificity
Immunizations are a form of: - Answer primary prevention
A low dose CT scan is recommended in patients age_________with a _______pack year history
of smoking - Answer 55-80 with 30 pack years
If a person tests positive for a disease and does not have the disease this is considered a: -
Answer false positive
Current recommendations for HIV screening include: - Answer all individuals can be
screened
Sending a patient for rehabilitation after a stroke is an example of: - Answer tertiary
prevention
Which of the following statements is true according to the USPSTF: - Answer colorectal
screening should begin at age 50
The U.S. government report, Healthy People 2020, has over all goals for a healthy society. Which
of the following are measures to assess achievement of the goals: (Select all that apply) -
Answer -attain high quality, longer lives free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and
premature death
-achieve health equity and eliminate disparities
-create social and physical environments that promote health
-promote quality of life across all stages of life
,Thomas Kincaid is a 72 year old black Jamaican male. He tells you he has not been to see a
medical provider in 25 years and asks for a complete physical. You do the physical which
appears normal and draw labs including a PSA because of urinary complaints. The labs come
back normal except for the PSA which was 45. When Mr. Kincaid comes for his follow-up you
advise him that his PSA is elevated and that you want him to see a urologist. Mr. Kincaid tells
you that he does not like doctors and he believes that God will do whatever is best for him so he
need not worry. Select the most appropriate response. - Answer I understand your religious
beliefs and confidence in God's power. Perhaps we can talk to your clergy to see how medical
treatment can be considered as God's plan.
The rapid strep test is up to 95% sensitive and 99% specific. The NP understands that this means
the following: (select all that apply). - Answer -5% of individuals with strep throat will test
negative (false negative)
-1% of individuals without strep will have a positive test (false positive)
-The rapid strep test is more specific than sensitive
Mammography has a sensitivity of 85% and a specificity of 90%. The NP understands the
following: (select all that apply) Please read the comments at the end of the question once
submitted. - Answer -15% of women with breast cancer will not be detected with
mammography
-10% of women without breast cancer will receive false positive results
-False positive results cause anxiety
Which of following are true regarding recommendations for Tdap vaccination (select all that
apply) - Answer -Tdap should be given regardless of interval since previous Td
-It is contraindicated in patients with a history of encephalopathy not attributable to an
identifiable cause, within 7d following DTP/DTaP, or Tdap
Which of following vaccine recommendations are true (select all that apply) - Answer
Varicella and MMR are give subcutaneously
There are currently 2 vaccines for pneumococcal disease
1. Pneumococcal conjugate (PCV13; Prevnar13)
2, Pneumococcal polysaccharide (PPSV23; Pneumovax 23)
The NP knows the following recommendations of these 2 vaccines (select all that apply) -
Answer -A second dose of PPSV23 is recommended if the individual is at high risk of serious
pneumococcal infection, including those who have asplenia, sickle cell disease, HIV, or are
receiving cancer chemotherapy
-All people age 65 years or older should receive a 1-time dose of PCV13 (if previously
unvaccinated) and 1 dose of PPSV23, separated by 1 yr; if possible, give PCV13 first
-PPSV23 only (not PCV13) is recommended in younger individuals less than 65 yrs if they have
chronic cardiac or pulmonary disease
,Which of the following can cause tinnitus? (Select all that apply) - Answer -Chronic exposure
to noise
-Aspirin
-Vancomycin
Risk factors for malignant external otitis includes: - Answer The presence of an
immunocompromised condition
The nurse practitoner prescribes an antibiotic and informs the patient with strep throat that
they can be cleared to return to work or school after________hours of antimicrobial therapy? -
Answer 24
Oral decongestants should be discouraged in patients with: - Answer Cardiovascular disease
A patient presents with an orbital cellulitis. How should this be treated? - Answer -
immediate referral or hospitalization for parenteral antibiotics
-Fever, diplopia, proptosis, restriction of EOM, swelling and erythema of the lids occurs
Which of the following is NOT an associated risk factor for acute angle closure glaucoma? -
Answer male gender
Which of the following is a presentation of acute angle closure glaucoma: (select all that apply) -
Answer -nausea and vomiting
-halos around light
-headache
Drugs with anticholinergic effects can worsen glaucoma. Which of the following agents don't
have anticholinergic properties and can be used if glaucoma is a problem: - Answer
atorvastatin
Marvin has sudden eye redness that occurred after a strenuous coughing episode. You diagnose
a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Your next step is to: - Answer do nothing other than provide
reassurance
Judith, age 15, asks you to explain the 20/50 vision in her right eye, you respond, - Answer
"You can see at 20 ft. with your right eye what the normal person can see at 50 ft.
, Choose all of the following treatments that have been shown to be effective for Meniere's
disease (select all that apply) - Answer -Spread out 2-3 grams of sodium over 3 meals
-Diuretics for those that don't respond to lifestyle changes
-Electrolyte replacement for intensive exercise with lots of sweating
Which of the following is a cause of otalgia: (Select all that apply) - Answer -TMJ syndrome
-bruxism
-sinus infection
Which of the following are characteristics assessed using the Centor criteria (select all that
apply) - Answer -Fever greater greater than 38 degrees
-Tonsillar exudate
-Absence of cough
Mrs. H is a 70 year old Asian woman who was brought to the clinic by her husband. For the past
few hours she has been complaining of a headache and blurry vision. She has had headaches
like this before but they always resolved within a few hours. She also began feeling nauseated
and vomited at home. When you see her, she is holding her head and moaning because her left
eye "hurts so badly." She feels unwell and complains of seeing rainbows and halos. You find out
that she has well-controlled diabetes and is on metformin. She wears glasses and was told at
one point she had cataracts, but has not seen an ophthalmologist in a few years. For the past
week she has had a cold and had been taking over the counter Sudafed. She doesn't smoke or
drink alcohol. What is diagnosis and plan? - Answer -Acute angle glaucoma
-Immediate referral to an opthalmalogist
-Diamox
A child weighing 23 kg presents with symptoms of URI including a sore throat and the NP
prescribes acetaminophen. What is the correct dose? The acetaminophen suspension is 120
mg/5 mL. Give 10 mg/kg/dose PO every 8-hours. - Answer 10 mL every 8 hours
The dosing range of acetaminophen is 10-15 mg/kg/dose and can be given every 6-8 hours. The
maximum dose is 60 mg/kg/day. If you use epocrates calculator you will get the wrong answer
because it divides the dose by 3. Ibuprofen is good for inflammatory problems however,
remember that GI upset is common and ibuprofen can increase GI distress. Ibuprofen can be
given to children at a dose of 5-10 mg/kg/dose PO every 6-8 hours with food.
A patient weighing 23 kg is allergic to PCN and has AOM. The pharmacy has azithromicin 200
mg/5mL. Using 10 mg/kg/day on day one and 5 mg/kg/day on days 2-5, how many mLs will the
NP prescribe? Round up to the nearest mL - Answer 6 mL day one and 3 mL days 2-5
with All Actual Answers 2025-2026
Updated.
Screening for colon cancer is which level of prevention? - Answer secondary
A sensitive test has which of the following characteristics: - Answer few false negatives
A patient comes to your office with questions about lab work done by another provider. She
tells you that the provider said not to worry about the positive test because there are a lot of
false positives for this particular lab test. You know that this means the test lacks: - Answer
specificity
Immunizations are a form of: - Answer primary prevention
A low dose CT scan is recommended in patients age_________with a _______pack year history
of smoking - Answer 55-80 with 30 pack years
If a person tests positive for a disease and does not have the disease this is considered a: -
Answer false positive
Current recommendations for HIV screening include: - Answer all individuals can be
screened
Sending a patient for rehabilitation after a stroke is an example of: - Answer tertiary
prevention
Which of the following statements is true according to the USPSTF: - Answer colorectal
screening should begin at age 50
The U.S. government report, Healthy People 2020, has over all goals for a healthy society. Which
of the following are measures to assess achievement of the goals: (Select all that apply) -
Answer -attain high quality, longer lives free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and
premature death
-achieve health equity and eliminate disparities
-create social and physical environments that promote health
-promote quality of life across all stages of life
,Thomas Kincaid is a 72 year old black Jamaican male. He tells you he has not been to see a
medical provider in 25 years and asks for a complete physical. You do the physical which
appears normal and draw labs including a PSA because of urinary complaints. The labs come
back normal except for the PSA which was 45. When Mr. Kincaid comes for his follow-up you
advise him that his PSA is elevated and that you want him to see a urologist. Mr. Kincaid tells
you that he does not like doctors and he believes that God will do whatever is best for him so he
need not worry. Select the most appropriate response. - Answer I understand your religious
beliefs and confidence in God's power. Perhaps we can talk to your clergy to see how medical
treatment can be considered as God's plan.
The rapid strep test is up to 95% sensitive and 99% specific. The NP understands that this means
the following: (select all that apply). - Answer -5% of individuals with strep throat will test
negative (false negative)
-1% of individuals without strep will have a positive test (false positive)
-The rapid strep test is more specific than sensitive
Mammography has a sensitivity of 85% and a specificity of 90%. The NP understands the
following: (select all that apply) Please read the comments at the end of the question once
submitted. - Answer -15% of women with breast cancer will not be detected with
mammography
-10% of women without breast cancer will receive false positive results
-False positive results cause anxiety
Which of following are true regarding recommendations for Tdap vaccination (select all that
apply) - Answer -Tdap should be given regardless of interval since previous Td
-It is contraindicated in patients with a history of encephalopathy not attributable to an
identifiable cause, within 7d following DTP/DTaP, or Tdap
Which of following vaccine recommendations are true (select all that apply) - Answer
Varicella and MMR are give subcutaneously
There are currently 2 vaccines for pneumococcal disease
1. Pneumococcal conjugate (PCV13; Prevnar13)
2, Pneumococcal polysaccharide (PPSV23; Pneumovax 23)
The NP knows the following recommendations of these 2 vaccines (select all that apply) -
Answer -A second dose of PPSV23 is recommended if the individual is at high risk of serious
pneumococcal infection, including those who have asplenia, sickle cell disease, HIV, or are
receiving cancer chemotherapy
-All people age 65 years or older should receive a 1-time dose of PCV13 (if previously
unvaccinated) and 1 dose of PPSV23, separated by 1 yr; if possible, give PCV13 first
-PPSV23 only (not PCV13) is recommended in younger individuals less than 65 yrs if they have
chronic cardiac or pulmonary disease
,Which of the following can cause tinnitus? (Select all that apply) - Answer -Chronic exposure
to noise
-Aspirin
-Vancomycin
Risk factors for malignant external otitis includes: - Answer The presence of an
immunocompromised condition
The nurse practitoner prescribes an antibiotic and informs the patient with strep throat that
they can be cleared to return to work or school after________hours of antimicrobial therapy? -
Answer 24
Oral decongestants should be discouraged in patients with: - Answer Cardiovascular disease
A patient presents with an orbital cellulitis. How should this be treated? - Answer -
immediate referral or hospitalization for parenteral antibiotics
-Fever, diplopia, proptosis, restriction of EOM, swelling and erythema of the lids occurs
Which of the following is NOT an associated risk factor for acute angle closure glaucoma? -
Answer male gender
Which of the following is a presentation of acute angle closure glaucoma: (select all that apply) -
Answer -nausea and vomiting
-halos around light
-headache
Drugs with anticholinergic effects can worsen glaucoma. Which of the following agents don't
have anticholinergic properties and can be used if glaucoma is a problem: - Answer
atorvastatin
Marvin has sudden eye redness that occurred after a strenuous coughing episode. You diagnose
a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Your next step is to: - Answer do nothing other than provide
reassurance
Judith, age 15, asks you to explain the 20/50 vision in her right eye, you respond, - Answer
"You can see at 20 ft. with your right eye what the normal person can see at 50 ft.
, Choose all of the following treatments that have been shown to be effective for Meniere's
disease (select all that apply) - Answer -Spread out 2-3 grams of sodium over 3 meals
-Diuretics for those that don't respond to lifestyle changes
-Electrolyte replacement for intensive exercise with lots of sweating
Which of the following is a cause of otalgia: (Select all that apply) - Answer -TMJ syndrome
-bruxism
-sinus infection
Which of the following are characteristics assessed using the Centor criteria (select all that
apply) - Answer -Fever greater greater than 38 degrees
-Tonsillar exudate
-Absence of cough
Mrs. H is a 70 year old Asian woman who was brought to the clinic by her husband. For the past
few hours she has been complaining of a headache and blurry vision. She has had headaches
like this before but they always resolved within a few hours. She also began feeling nauseated
and vomited at home. When you see her, she is holding her head and moaning because her left
eye "hurts so badly." She feels unwell and complains of seeing rainbows and halos. You find out
that she has well-controlled diabetes and is on metformin. She wears glasses and was told at
one point she had cataracts, but has not seen an ophthalmologist in a few years. For the past
week she has had a cold and had been taking over the counter Sudafed. She doesn't smoke or
drink alcohol. What is diagnosis and plan? - Answer -Acute angle glaucoma
-Immediate referral to an opthalmalogist
-Diamox
A child weighing 23 kg presents with symptoms of URI including a sore throat and the NP
prescribes acetaminophen. What is the correct dose? The acetaminophen suspension is 120
mg/5 mL. Give 10 mg/kg/dose PO every 8-hours. - Answer 10 mL every 8 hours
The dosing range of acetaminophen is 10-15 mg/kg/dose and can be given every 6-8 hours. The
maximum dose is 60 mg/kg/day. If you use epocrates calculator you will get the wrong answer
because it divides the dose by 3. Ibuprofen is good for inflammatory problems however,
remember that GI upset is common and ibuprofen can increase GI distress. Ibuprofen can be
given to children at a dose of 5-10 mg/kg/dose PO every 6-8 hours with food.
A patient weighing 23 kg is allergic to PCN and has AOM. The pharmacy has azithromicin 200
mg/5mL. Using 10 mg/kg/day on day one and 5 mg/kg/day on days 2-5, how many mLs will the
NP prescribe? Round up to the nearest mL - Answer 6 mL day one and 3 mL days 2-5
