VATI RN PHARMACOLOGY 2026 – COMPLETE
TEST BANK WITH VERIFIED QUESTIONS &
DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS
VATI RN PHARMACOLOGY 2026
COMPLETE TEST BANK – 300 QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
QUESTION 1
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client. Which assessment finding should
prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
B. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
➤ C. Apical pulse of 52 beats/min
D. Oxygen saturation of 96%
E. Temperature of 37.2°C
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Digoxin slows the heart rate. The nurse
should withhold digoxin and notify the provider if the apical pulse is below 60 beats/min
in an adult, as this indicates bradycardia which can worsen with digoxin administration.
QUESTION 2
A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which condition in the client's
history is a contraindication for this medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperthyroidism
➤ C. Chronic kidney disease
D. Osteoarthritis
E. Mild asthma
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Metformin is contraindicated in clients
with chronic kidney disease because impaired renal function reduces drug clearance,
increasing the risk of lactic acidosis, a potentially fatal complication.
,QUESTION 3
A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?
A. Platelet count
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. Hemoglobin level
➤ D. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
E. Serum creatinine
CORRECT ANSWER: D RATIONALE: The INR is the standard test used to
monitor warfarin therapy. A therapeutic INR for most indications is 2.0–3.0. The aPTT
monitors heparin, not warfarin.
QUESTION 4
A client is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes the client's face, neck, and chest
have become flushed and red. What is the most likely cause?
A. Allergic reaction requiring epinephrine
B. Vancomycin toxicity
➤ C. Red Man Syndrome due to rapid infusion
D. Phlebitis at the IV site
E. Superinfection
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Red Man Syndrome is a non-allergic
infusion reaction caused by too-rapid infusion of vancomycin. It causes flushing,
redness of the face/neck/chest, and pruritus. Slowing the infusion rate prevents and
treats this reaction.
QUESTION 5
A nurse is teaching a client about taking oral iron supplements. Which instruction should
the nurse include?
A. Take the supplement with milk to reduce GI upset
,B. Expect your stools to be light-colored while on this medication
➤ C. Take the supplement with vitamin C to enhance absorption
D. Double the dose if you miss a scheduled dose
E. Take the supplement with antacids to reduce stomach irritation
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) enhances the
absorption of iron by converting ferric iron to the ferrous form. Milk, antacids, and certain
foods inhibit iron absorption. Stools will darken, not lighten.
QUESTION 6
A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse
instruct the client to report immediately?
A. Mild headache
B. Increased urination
➤ C. Persistent dry cough
D. Slight dizziness when rising slowly
E. Mild fatigue in the first week
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril commonly
cause a persistent dry cough due to accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs. This is a
well-known side effect that often requires switching to an ARB.
QUESTION 7
A nurse is administering morphine sulfate to a postoperative client. Which assessment
finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication?
A. Pain rating of 7/10
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
➤ C. Respiratory rate of 9 breaths/min
D. Oxygen saturation of 95%
E. Heart rate of 78 beats/min
, CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Respiratory depression is the most
serious adverse effect of opioid analgesics. A respiratory rate below 12 breaths/min
warrants withholding the medication and notifying the provider. Naloxone should be
available as reversal agent.
QUESTION 8
A client taking lithium carbonate reports nausea, vomiting, tremors, and confusion. The
nurse suspects lithium toxicity. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the next scheduled dose as planned
B. Encourage increased fluid intake
➤ C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
D. Administer an antiemetic
E. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Symptoms of nausea, vomiting,
tremors, and confusion are signs of lithium toxicity. The nurse should immediately hold
the medication and notify the provider. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index (0.6–1.2
mEq/L).
QUESTION 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed heparin infusion. Which antidote should
the nurse have available in case of overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Flumazenil
➤ C. Protamine sulfate
D. Naloxone
E. Acetylcysteine
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Protamine sulfate is the specific
antidote for heparin overdose. It binds to heparin and neutralizes its anticoagulant
effect. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin.
TEST BANK WITH VERIFIED QUESTIONS &
DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS
VATI RN PHARMACOLOGY 2026
COMPLETE TEST BANK – 300 QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
QUESTION 1
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client. Which assessment finding should
prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
B. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
➤ C. Apical pulse of 52 beats/min
D. Oxygen saturation of 96%
E. Temperature of 37.2°C
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Digoxin slows the heart rate. The nurse
should withhold digoxin and notify the provider if the apical pulse is below 60 beats/min
in an adult, as this indicates bradycardia which can worsen with digoxin administration.
QUESTION 2
A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which condition in the client's
history is a contraindication for this medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperthyroidism
➤ C. Chronic kidney disease
D. Osteoarthritis
E. Mild asthma
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Metformin is contraindicated in clients
with chronic kidney disease because impaired renal function reduces drug clearance,
increasing the risk of lactic acidosis, a potentially fatal complication.
,QUESTION 3
A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?
A. Platelet count
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. Hemoglobin level
➤ D. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
E. Serum creatinine
CORRECT ANSWER: D RATIONALE: The INR is the standard test used to
monitor warfarin therapy. A therapeutic INR for most indications is 2.0–3.0. The aPTT
monitors heparin, not warfarin.
QUESTION 4
A client is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes the client's face, neck, and chest
have become flushed and red. What is the most likely cause?
A. Allergic reaction requiring epinephrine
B. Vancomycin toxicity
➤ C. Red Man Syndrome due to rapid infusion
D. Phlebitis at the IV site
E. Superinfection
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Red Man Syndrome is a non-allergic
infusion reaction caused by too-rapid infusion of vancomycin. It causes flushing,
redness of the face/neck/chest, and pruritus. Slowing the infusion rate prevents and
treats this reaction.
QUESTION 5
A nurse is teaching a client about taking oral iron supplements. Which instruction should
the nurse include?
A. Take the supplement with milk to reduce GI upset
,B. Expect your stools to be light-colored while on this medication
➤ C. Take the supplement with vitamin C to enhance absorption
D. Double the dose if you miss a scheduled dose
E. Take the supplement with antacids to reduce stomach irritation
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) enhances the
absorption of iron by converting ferric iron to the ferrous form. Milk, antacids, and certain
foods inhibit iron absorption. Stools will darken, not lighten.
QUESTION 6
A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse
instruct the client to report immediately?
A. Mild headache
B. Increased urination
➤ C. Persistent dry cough
D. Slight dizziness when rising slowly
E. Mild fatigue in the first week
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril commonly
cause a persistent dry cough due to accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs. This is a
well-known side effect that often requires switching to an ARB.
QUESTION 7
A nurse is administering morphine sulfate to a postoperative client. Which assessment
finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication?
A. Pain rating of 7/10
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
➤ C. Respiratory rate of 9 breaths/min
D. Oxygen saturation of 95%
E. Heart rate of 78 beats/min
, CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Respiratory depression is the most
serious adverse effect of opioid analgesics. A respiratory rate below 12 breaths/min
warrants withholding the medication and notifying the provider. Naloxone should be
available as reversal agent.
QUESTION 8
A client taking lithium carbonate reports nausea, vomiting, tremors, and confusion. The
nurse suspects lithium toxicity. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the next scheduled dose as planned
B. Encourage increased fluid intake
➤ C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
D. Administer an antiemetic
E. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Symptoms of nausea, vomiting,
tremors, and confusion are signs of lithium toxicity. The nurse should immediately hold
the medication and notify the provider. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index (0.6–1.2
mEq/L).
QUESTION 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed heparin infusion. Which antidote should
the nurse have available in case of overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Flumazenil
➤ C. Protamine sulfate
D. Naloxone
E. Acetylcysteine
CORRECT ANSWER: C RATIONALE: Protamine sulfate is the specific
antidote for heparin overdose. It binds to heparin and neutralizes its anticoagulant
effect. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin.
