UTA NURS 5338 URGENT EMERGENCIES EXAM (UPDATED 2026) QUESTIONS & ANSWERS |
WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ GUARANTEED SUCCESS!!
Question 1
What is the recommended pharmacological treatment for an uncomplicated gonorrhea infection
in a patient weighing 110 kg?
A) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose
B) Ceftriaxone 1 gm IM single dose
C) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
D) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
E) Azithromycin 1 gm PO single dose
Correct Answer: C) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
Rationale: According to current guidelines for gonorrhea, patients weighing less than 150
kg should receive a single intramuscular dose of 500 mg Ceftriaxone. Doxycycline is used
for chlamydia, and the 1 gm dose of Ceftriaxone is reserved for heavier patients.
Question 2
A 28-year-old male weighing 165 kg is diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which treatment regimen is
most appropriate?
A) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
B) Ceftriaxone 1 gm IM single dose
C) Gentamicin 240 mg IM + Azithromycin 2 gm PO
D) Cefixime 800 mg PO single dose
E) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 14 days
Correct Answer: B) Ceftriaxone 1 gm IM single dose
Rationale: For individuals weighing 150 kg or more, the standard dose of Ceftriaxone for
gonorrhea is increased to 1 gm IM as a single dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy in larger
body masses.
Question 3
What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for a non-pregnant patient diagnosed with
chlamydia?
A) Azithromycin 1 gm PO single dose
B) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
C) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
D) Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TID for 7 days
E) Levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily for 3 days
Correct Answer: C) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
Rationale: Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days is the preferred first-line treatment for
chlamydial infections in non-pregnant adults due to its high efficacy.
Question 4
A pregnant woman tests positive for chlamydia. Which medication is recommended for
treatment?
, Page 2
A) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
B) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
C) Azithromycin 1 gm PO single dose
D) Gentamicin 240 mg IM single dose
E) Cefixime 800 mg PO single dose
Correct Answer: C) Azithromycin 1 gm PO single dose
Rationale: Doxycycline is generally avoided in pregnancy due to potential effects on fetal
bone and tooth development. Azithromycin 1 gm as a single dose is the recommended safe
and effective alternative for treating chlamydia during pregnancy.
Question 5
When cannot exclude a chlamydial infection in a patient receiving treatment for another STI,
which alternative combination regimen may be used?
A) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM + Azithromycin 1 gm PO
B) Cefixime 800 mg PO + Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
C) Gentamicin 240 mg IM + Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
D) Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID for 7 days
E) Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM
Correct Answer: B) Cefixime 800 mg PO + Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
Rationale: The combination of Cefixime (for gonorrhea coverage) and Doxycycline (for
chlamydia coverage) is an acceptable alternative regimen when chlamydia cannot be
excluded and primary options are unavailable.
Question 6
Which assessment technique should be performed first during a physical examination?
A) Palpation
B) Auscultation
C) Inspection/Observation
D) Percussion
E) Interviewing
Correct Answer: C) Inspection/Observation
Rationale: The standard sequence of physical assessment is observation/inspection, followed
by listening (auscultation), and finally palpation. This ensures that the provider gathers
visual data before potentially altering findings through touch.
Question 7
During a physical exam, what is the correct sequence of assessment techniques?
A) Palpate, Inspect, Listen, Observe
B) Observe, Inspect, Listen, Palpate
C) Listen, Observe, Palpate, Inspect
D) Inspect, Palpate, Observe, Listen
E) Palpate, Listen, Inspect, Observe
, Page 3
Correct Answer: B) Observe, Inspect, Listen, Palpate
Rationale: As per clinical guidelines, the sequence begins with non-invasive observation and
inspection, then moves to auscultation (listening), and ends with palpation to avoid eliciting
pain or changing bowel sounds prematurely.
Question 8
In a patient suspected of having appendicitis, where is the pain most typically localized?
A) Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)
B) Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)
C) Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)
D) Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)
E) Periumbilical area only
Correct Answer: D) Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)
Rationale: Appendicitis typically presents with severe pain that eventually localizes to the
Right Lower Quadrant (McBurney’s point) as the inflammation progresses.
Question 9
What is the typical chronological order of symptoms in a classic presentation of appendicitis?
A) Vomiting, Nausea, Anorexia, Pain
B) Pain, Diarrhea, Fever, Vomiting
C) Anorexia, Abdominal Pain, Nausea, and Vomiting
D) Fever, Constipation, Pain, Nausea
E) Diarrhea, Pain, Anorexia, Nausea
Correct Answer: C) Anorexia, Abdominal Pain, Nausea, and Vomiting
Rationale: In appendicitis, the most common symptom progression begins with a loss of
appetite (anorexia), followed by abdominal pain, and then nausea and vomiting.
Constipation or diarrhea usually occurs only after the pain has started.
Question 10
Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of acute abdominal pain that requires urgent
evaluation?
A) Mild cramping relieved by flatulence
B) Sudden onset and abdominal distention
C) Dull, intermittent ache for 3 weeks
D) Heartburn after a heavy meal
E) Increased appetite
Correct Answer: B) Sudden onset and abdominal distention
Rationale: Acute abdominal pain is characterized by a sudden onset, severity, persistence,
and associated systemic signs like fever, abdominal distention, and signs of shock.
Question 11
How is the "Obturator Sign" performed during an abdominal assessment?
, Page 4
A) Deep palpation of the LLQ causing pain in the RLQ
B) Having the patient jump to see if it causes RLQ pain
C) Flexing the patient's right hip and knee at 90 degrees and rotating the ankle away from the
body
D) Extending the right leg while the patient is side-lying
E) Tapping the heel of the extended leg
Correct Answer: C) Flexing the patient's right hip and knee at 90 degrees and rotating the
ankle away from the body
Rationale: The Obturator sign is a clinical test for appendicitis or pelvic abscess. It involves
internal rotation of the flexed right hip, which puts stretch on the obturator internus
muscle; if the appendix is inflamed and in contact with the muscle, it causes pain.
Question 12
A patient presents to a primary care clinic with signs of sepsis, including hypotension and
tachycardia. What is the appropriate next step for the Family Nurse Practitioner?
A) Start IV antibiotics in the clinic
B) Order a CBC and wait for results
C) Refer the patient immediately to the Emergency Department (ED)
D) Schedule a follow-up for the next morning
E) Administer 1 liter of oral fluids
Correct Answer: C) Refer the patient immediately to the Emergency Department (ED)
Rationale: Sepsis is a life-threatening medical emergency. Primary care settings are
typically not equipped for the aggressive fluid resuscitation and monitoring required;
therefore, immediate transfer to the ED is mandatory.
Question 13
What is the primary definitive treatment for a localized skin abscess?
A) Oral antibiotics alone
B) Warm compresses only
C) Incision and Drainage (I&D)
D) Topical steroids
E) Watchful waiting
Correct Answer: C) Incision and Drainage (I&D)
Rationale: The standard of care for a mature abscess is Incision and Drainage. Antibiotics
may be used as an adjunct, but they often cannot penetrate the abscess wall effectively
without drainage.
Question 14
Which of the following is a common assessment finding associated with cellulitis?
A) Cool, pale skin with no swelling
B) Erythema, warmth, edema, and pain
C) A well-defined, fluctuant mass
WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ GUARANTEED SUCCESS!!
Question 1
What is the recommended pharmacological treatment for an uncomplicated gonorrhea infection
in a patient weighing 110 kg?
A) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose
B) Ceftriaxone 1 gm IM single dose
C) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
D) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
E) Azithromycin 1 gm PO single dose
Correct Answer: C) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
Rationale: According to current guidelines for gonorrhea, patients weighing less than 150
kg should receive a single intramuscular dose of 500 mg Ceftriaxone. Doxycycline is used
for chlamydia, and the 1 gm dose of Ceftriaxone is reserved for heavier patients.
Question 2
A 28-year-old male weighing 165 kg is diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which treatment regimen is
most appropriate?
A) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
B) Ceftriaxone 1 gm IM single dose
C) Gentamicin 240 mg IM + Azithromycin 2 gm PO
D) Cefixime 800 mg PO single dose
E) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 14 days
Correct Answer: B) Ceftriaxone 1 gm IM single dose
Rationale: For individuals weighing 150 kg or more, the standard dose of Ceftriaxone for
gonorrhea is increased to 1 gm IM as a single dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy in larger
body masses.
Question 3
What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for a non-pregnant patient diagnosed with
chlamydia?
A) Azithromycin 1 gm PO single dose
B) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
C) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
D) Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TID for 7 days
E) Levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily for 3 days
Correct Answer: C) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
Rationale: Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days is the preferred first-line treatment for
chlamydial infections in non-pregnant adults due to its high efficacy.
Question 4
A pregnant woman tests positive for chlamydia. Which medication is recommended for
treatment?
, Page 2
A) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
B) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
C) Azithromycin 1 gm PO single dose
D) Gentamicin 240 mg IM single dose
E) Cefixime 800 mg PO single dose
Correct Answer: C) Azithromycin 1 gm PO single dose
Rationale: Doxycycline is generally avoided in pregnancy due to potential effects on fetal
bone and tooth development. Azithromycin 1 gm as a single dose is the recommended safe
and effective alternative for treating chlamydia during pregnancy.
Question 5
When cannot exclude a chlamydial infection in a patient receiving treatment for another STI,
which alternative combination regimen may be used?
A) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM + Azithromycin 1 gm PO
B) Cefixime 800 mg PO + Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
C) Gentamicin 240 mg IM + Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
D) Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID for 7 days
E) Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM
Correct Answer: B) Cefixime 800 mg PO + Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
Rationale: The combination of Cefixime (for gonorrhea coverage) and Doxycycline (for
chlamydia coverage) is an acceptable alternative regimen when chlamydia cannot be
excluded and primary options are unavailable.
Question 6
Which assessment technique should be performed first during a physical examination?
A) Palpation
B) Auscultation
C) Inspection/Observation
D) Percussion
E) Interviewing
Correct Answer: C) Inspection/Observation
Rationale: The standard sequence of physical assessment is observation/inspection, followed
by listening (auscultation), and finally palpation. This ensures that the provider gathers
visual data before potentially altering findings through touch.
Question 7
During a physical exam, what is the correct sequence of assessment techniques?
A) Palpate, Inspect, Listen, Observe
B) Observe, Inspect, Listen, Palpate
C) Listen, Observe, Palpate, Inspect
D) Inspect, Palpate, Observe, Listen
E) Palpate, Listen, Inspect, Observe
, Page 3
Correct Answer: B) Observe, Inspect, Listen, Palpate
Rationale: As per clinical guidelines, the sequence begins with non-invasive observation and
inspection, then moves to auscultation (listening), and ends with palpation to avoid eliciting
pain or changing bowel sounds prematurely.
Question 8
In a patient suspected of having appendicitis, where is the pain most typically localized?
A) Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)
B) Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)
C) Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)
D) Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)
E) Periumbilical area only
Correct Answer: D) Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)
Rationale: Appendicitis typically presents with severe pain that eventually localizes to the
Right Lower Quadrant (McBurney’s point) as the inflammation progresses.
Question 9
What is the typical chronological order of symptoms in a classic presentation of appendicitis?
A) Vomiting, Nausea, Anorexia, Pain
B) Pain, Diarrhea, Fever, Vomiting
C) Anorexia, Abdominal Pain, Nausea, and Vomiting
D) Fever, Constipation, Pain, Nausea
E) Diarrhea, Pain, Anorexia, Nausea
Correct Answer: C) Anorexia, Abdominal Pain, Nausea, and Vomiting
Rationale: In appendicitis, the most common symptom progression begins with a loss of
appetite (anorexia), followed by abdominal pain, and then nausea and vomiting.
Constipation or diarrhea usually occurs only after the pain has started.
Question 10
Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of acute abdominal pain that requires urgent
evaluation?
A) Mild cramping relieved by flatulence
B) Sudden onset and abdominal distention
C) Dull, intermittent ache for 3 weeks
D) Heartburn after a heavy meal
E) Increased appetite
Correct Answer: B) Sudden onset and abdominal distention
Rationale: Acute abdominal pain is characterized by a sudden onset, severity, persistence,
and associated systemic signs like fever, abdominal distention, and signs of shock.
Question 11
How is the "Obturator Sign" performed during an abdominal assessment?
, Page 4
A) Deep palpation of the LLQ causing pain in the RLQ
B) Having the patient jump to see if it causes RLQ pain
C) Flexing the patient's right hip and knee at 90 degrees and rotating the ankle away from the
body
D) Extending the right leg while the patient is side-lying
E) Tapping the heel of the extended leg
Correct Answer: C) Flexing the patient's right hip and knee at 90 degrees and rotating the
ankle away from the body
Rationale: The Obturator sign is a clinical test for appendicitis or pelvic abscess. It involves
internal rotation of the flexed right hip, which puts stretch on the obturator internus
muscle; if the appendix is inflamed and in contact with the muscle, it causes pain.
Question 12
A patient presents to a primary care clinic with signs of sepsis, including hypotension and
tachycardia. What is the appropriate next step for the Family Nurse Practitioner?
A) Start IV antibiotics in the clinic
B) Order a CBC and wait for results
C) Refer the patient immediately to the Emergency Department (ED)
D) Schedule a follow-up for the next morning
E) Administer 1 liter of oral fluids
Correct Answer: C) Refer the patient immediately to the Emergency Department (ED)
Rationale: Sepsis is a life-threatening medical emergency. Primary care settings are
typically not equipped for the aggressive fluid resuscitation and monitoring required;
therefore, immediate transfer to the ED is mandatory.
Question 13
What is the primary definitive treatment for a localized skin abscess?
A) Oral antibiotics alone
B) Warm compresses only
C) Incision and Drainage (I&D)
D) Topical steroids
E) Watchful waiting
Correct Answer: C) Incision and Drainage (I&D)
Rationale: The standard of care for a mature abscess is Incision and Drainage. Antibiotics
may be used as an adjunct, but they often cannot penetrate the abscess wall effectively
without drainage.
Question 14
Which of the following is a common assessment finding associated with cellulitis?
A) Cool, pale skin with no swelling
B) Erythema, warmth, edema, and pain
C) A well-defined, fluctuant mass
