SNHD AEMT PROTOCOLS QUIZ EXAM 2026/2027 | 100%
Correct Answers with Complete Solutions | Advanced
Emergency Medical Technician | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
Domain 1: Airway and Breathing (Questions 1-10)
Q1: You respond to a 68-year-old male with severe dyspnea, SpO2 84% on room air,
respiratory rate 32, and bilateral crackles. He is alert and oriented with BP 158/92.
According to SNHD protocols, what is your priority intervention?
A. Immediate endotracheal intubation
B. Apply CPAP at 5-10 cm H2O with 100% FiO2 [CORRECT]
C. Administer furosemide 80 mg IV
D. Insert nasopharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask ventilation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per SNHD and Nevada EMS protocols, CPAP is indicated for awake, oriented
patients with respiratory distress and hypoxia from suspected CHF/pulmonary edema,
COPD, or pneumonia . The patient meets all criteria: alert, SpO2 <94%, respiratory
distress with accessory muscle use. CPAP improves oxygenation, reduces
preload/afterload, and decreases intubation rates. Distractor A is premature—CPAP
should be attempted first. Distractor C is a paramedic-level intervention. Distractor D is
inappropriate for an alert patient with intact airway reflexes.
,Q2: A 45-year-old asthma patient has SpO2 88%, respiratory rate 28, and wheezing
audible without auscultation. After albuterol administration, there is minimal
improvement. What is the next appropriate AEMT intervention?
A. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 0.3 mg IM [CORRECT]
B. Perform immediate intubation
C. Administer magnesium sulfate 2g IV
D. Initiate BiPAP at 10/5 cm H2O
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Per SNHD respiratory distress protocols, epinephrine 0.3 mg IM (1:1000) is
indicated for impending respiratory failure when the patient cannot tolerate nebulizer
therapy or has refractory bronchospasm . This is within AEMT scope for severe asthma
exacerbation. Distractor B is premature. Distractor C is paramedic-level. Distractor D
requires patient cooperation and intact mental status, but epinephrine addresses the
underlying bronchospasm more directly.
Q3: During CPAP application, the patient's blood pressure drops from 140/90 to 82/50
mmHg after 10 minutes. What is your priority action?
A. Increase CPAP pressure to improve cardiac output
B. Discontinue CPAP and reassess [CORRECT]
C. Administer 500 mL NS fluid bolus rapidly
D. Continue CPAP and notify hospital of hypotension
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Hypotension (SBP <90 mmHg) is a contraindication to CPAP . CPAP
increases intrathoracic pressure, reducing venous return and potentially worsening
hypotension. The device must be discontinued immediately. Distractor A would worsen
hypotension. Distractor C may be appropriate after discontinuation but doesn't address
the immediate problem. Distractor D delays critical intervention.
Q4: A patient requires oropharyngeal suctioning. What is the maximum duration for
each suction pass?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10-15 seconds [CORRECT]
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds to prevent hypoxemia and
vagal stimulation . Pre-oxygenation is required before suctioning. Longer durations
cause significant oxygen desaturation and potential arrhythmias.
Q5: A patient with COPD has SpO2 91% on 2 L/min nasal cannula. What is the target
SpO2 range for this patient according to current protocols?
A. 94-100%
B. 88-92% [CORRECT]
C. 85-90%
, D. >98%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For COPD patients with chronic CO2 retention, the target SpO2 is 88-92% .
Excessive oxygen suppresses hypoxic respiratory drive, causing CO2 retention and
respiratory acidosis. Distractors A and D are appropriate for most patients but
dangerous in COPD. Distractor C is too low and unsafe.
Q6: You are assisting with intubation. According to SNHD protocols, what is the
maximum time limit for an intubation attempt before reoxygenation?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 30 seconds (adults), 20 seconds (pediatrics) [CORRECT]
D. 90 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intubation attempts should not exceed 30 seconds in adults or 20 seconds in
pediatrics before reoxygenation . If SpO2 drops below 94%, ventilate with BVM
immediately. Prolonged attempts cause hypoxemia and increase aspiration risk.
Q7: A patient has a GCS of 8 and requires airway management. According to SNHD
protocols, what is the priority?
A. Insert nasopharyngeal airway only
B. Insert oropharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask ventilation
Correct Answers with Complete Solutions | Advanced
Emergency Medical Technician | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
Domain 1: Airway and Breathing (Questions 1-10)
Q1: You respond to a 68-year-old male with severe dyspnea, SpO2 84% on room air,
respiratory rate 32, and bilateral crackles. He is alert and oriented with BP 158/92.
According to SNHD protocols, what is your priority intervention?
A. Immediate endotracheal intubation
B. Apply CPAP at 5-10 cm H2O with 100% FiO2 [CORRECT]
C. Administer furosemide 80 mg IV
D. Insert nasopharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask ventilation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per SNHD and Nevada EMS protocols, CPAP is indicated for awake, oriented
patients with respiratory distress and hypoxia from suspected CHF/pulmonary edema,
COPD, or pneumonia . The patient meets all criteria: alert, SpO2 <94%, respiratory
distress with accessory muscle use. CPAP improves oxygenation, reduces
preload/afterload, and decreases intubation rates. Distractor A is premature—CPAP
should be attempted first. Distractor C is a paramedic-level intervention. Distractor D is
inappropriate for an alert patient with intact airway reflexes.
,Q2: A 45-year-old asthma patient has SpO2 88%, respiratory rate 28, and wheezing
audible without auscultation. After albuterol administration, there is minimal
improvement. What is the next appropriate AEMT intervention?
A. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 0.3 mg IM [CORRECT]
B. Perform immediate intubation
C. Administer magnesium sulfate 2g IV
D. Initiate BiPAP at 10/5 cm H2O
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Per SNHD respiratory distress protocols, epinephrine 0.3 mg IM (1:1000) is
indicated for impending respiratory failure when the patient cannot tolerate nebulizer
therapy or has refractory bronchospasm . This is within AEMT scope for severe asthma
exacerbation. Distractor B is premature. Distractor C is paramedic-level. Distractor D
requires patient cooperation and intact mental status, but epinephrine addresses the
underlying bronchospasm more directly.
Q3: During CPAP application, the patient's blood pressure drops from 140/90 to 82/50
mmHg after 10 minutes. What is your priority action?
A. Increase CPAP pressure to improve cardiac output
B. Discontinue CPAP and reassess [CORRECT]
C. Administer 500 mL NS fluid bolus rapidly
D. Continue CPAP and notify hospital of hypotension
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Hypotension (SBP <90 mmHg) is a contraindication to CPAP . CPAP
increases intrathoracic pressure, reducing venous return and potentially worsening
hypotension. The device must be discontinued immediately. Distractor A would worsen
hypotension. Distractor C may be appropriate after discontinuation but doesn't address
the immediate problem. Distractor D delays critical intervention.
Q4: A patient requires oropharyngeal suctioning. What is the maximum duration for
each suction pass?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10-15 seconds [CORRECT]
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds to prevent hypoxemia and
vagal stimulation . Pre-oxygenation is required before suctioning. Longer durations
cause significant oxygen desaturation and potential arrhythmias.
Q5: A patient with COPD has SpO2 91% on 2 L/min nasal cannula. What is the target
SpO2 range for this patient according to current protocols?
A. 94-100%
B. 88-92% [CORRECT]
C. 85-90%
, D. >98%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For COPD patients with chronic CO2 retention, the target SpO2 is 88-92% .
Excessive oxygen suppresses hypoxic respiratory drive, causing CO2 retention and
respiratory acidosis. Distractors A and D are appropriate for most patients but
dangerous in COPD. Distractor C is too low and unsafe.
Q6: You are assisting with intubation. According to SNHD protocols, what is the
maximum time limit for an intubation attempt before reoxygenation?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 30 seconds (adults), 20 seconds (pediatrics) [CORRECT]
D. 90 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intubation attempts should not exceed 30 seconds in adults or 20 seconds in
pediatrics before reoxygenation . If SpO2 drops below 94%, ventilate with BVM
immediately. Prolonged attempts cause hypoxemia and increase aspiration risk.
Q7: A patient has a GCS of 8 and requires airway management. According to SNHD
protocols, what is the priority?
A. Insert nasopharyngeal airway only
B. Insert oropharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask ventilation
