CMN 552 Primary Care Nursing Comprehensive Final Exam Guide
2026|USA
1. According to the JNC-8 guidelines, what is the blood pressure threshold for
initiating pharmacological treatment in patients aged 60 years or older without
diabetes or CKD?
A. 130/80 mmHg
B. 150/90 mmHg
C. 140/90 mmHg
D. 160/100 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: JNC-8 recommends a target BP of <150/90 mmHg for adults aged 60 and older.
If the patient has diabetes or CKD, the goal is lower (<140/90).
2. A 45-year-old male presents with a fasting plasma glucose of 127 mg/dL on
two separate occasions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Normal glucose tolerance
B. Prediabetes
C. Diabetes Mellitus Type 2
D. Metabolic Syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: The diagnostic criteria for Diabetes Mellitus is a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) of
126 mg/dL or higher on two separate tests.
,3. Which of the following is considered the first-line pharmacological treatment
for a patient newly diagnosed with Type 2 Diabetes, assuming no
contraindications?
A. Metformin
B. Glyburide
C. Sitagliptin
D. Liraglutide
Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is the gold standard first-line agent for T2DM due to its efficacy,
safety profile, and low risk of hypoglycemia.
4. A patient with COPD presents with an FEV1/FVC ratio of <0.70 and an FEV1 of
65% predicted. According to GOLD criteria, what is the severity of airflow
limitation?
A. GOLD 1 (Mild)
B. GOLD 3 (Severe)
C. GOLD 2 (Moderate)
D. GOLD 4 (Very Severe)
Answer: C
Rationale: GOLD 2 (Moderate) is defined as 50% <= FEV1 < 80% predicted.
5. Which class of antihypertensive medication is generally contraindicated in
patients with a history of angioedema?
A. Calcium Channel Blockers
B. Thiazide Diuretics
C. Beta Blockers
D. ACE Inhibitors
Answer: D
, Rationale: ACE inhibitors are known to cause angioedema due to increased bradykinin
levels and should never be restarted in a patient who has experienced this reaction.
6. What is the primary screening tool used for depression in the primary care
setting?
A. GAD-7
B. CAGE Questionnaire
C. MMSE
D. PHQ-9
Answer: D
Rationale: The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is the standard validated tool for
screening and monitoring the severity of depression.
7. A patient presents with sudden onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, and
seeing ‘halos’ around lights. What is the most urgent differential diagnosis?
A. Bacterial Conjunctivitis
B. Cataracts
C. Open-Angle Glaucoma
D. Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
Answer: D
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency characterized by rapid
increase in intraocular pressure, pain, and vision loss.
8. What is the USPSTF recommendation for colorectal cancer screening in
average-risk adults?
A. Start at age 40 and continue to 75
B. Start at age 45 and continue to 75
C. Start at age 50 and continue to 85
D. Screen only if symptomatic
Answer: B
2026|USA
1. According to the JNC-8 guidelines, what is the blood pressure threshold for
initiating pharmacological treatment in patients aged 60 years or older without
diabetes or CKD?
A. 130/80 mmHg
B. 150/90 mmHg
C. 140/90 mmHg
D. 160/100 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: JNC-8 recommends a target BP of <150/90 mmHg for adults aged 60 and older.
If the patient has diabetes or CKD, the goal is lower (<140/90).
2. A 45-year-old male presents with a fasting plasma glucose of 127 mg/dL on
two separate occasions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Normal glucose tolerance
B. Prediabetes
C. Diabetes Mellitus Type 2
D. Metabolic Syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: The diagnostic criteria for Diabetes Mellitus is a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) of
126 mg/dL or higher on two separate tests.
,3. Which of the following is considered the first-line pharmacological treatment
for a patient newly diagnosed with Type 2 Diabetes, assuming no
contraindications?
A. Metformin
B. Glyburide
C. Sitagliptin
D. Liraglutide
Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is the gold standard first-line agent for T2DM due to its efficacy,
safety profile, and low risk of hypoglycemia.
4. A patient with COPD presents with an FEV1/FVC ratio of <0.70 and an FEV1 of
65% predicted. According to GOLD criteria, what is the severity of airflow
limitation?
A. GOLD 1 (Mild)
B. GOLD 3 (Severe)
C. GOLD 2 (Moderate)
D. GOLD 4 (Very Severe)
Answer: C
Rationale: GOLD 2 (Moderate) is defined as 50% <= FEV1 < 80% predicted.
5. Which class of antihypertensive medication is generally contraindicated in
patients with a history of angioedema?
A. Calcium Channel Blockers
B. Thiazide Diuretics
C. Beta Blockers
D. ACE Inhibitors
Answer: D
, Rationale: ACE inhibitors are known to cause angioedema due to increased bradykinin
levels and should never be restarted in a patient who has experienced this reaction.
6. What is the primary screening tool used for depression in the primary care
setting?
A. GAD-7
B. CAGE Questionnaire
C. MMSE
D. PHQ-9
Answer: D
Rationale: The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is the standard validated tool for
screening and monitoring the severity of depression.
7. A patient presents with sudden onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, and
seeing ‘halos’ around lights. What is the most urgent differential diagnosis?
A. Bacterial Conjunctivitis
B. Cataracts
C. Open-Angle Glaucoma
D. Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
Answer: D
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency characterized by rapid
increase in intraocular pressure, pain, and vision loss.
8. What is the USPSTF recommendation for colorectal cancer screening in
average-risk adults?
A. Start at age 40 and continue to 75
B. Start at age 45 and continue to 75
C. Start at age 50 and continue to 85
D. Screen only if symptomatic
Answer: B
