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Q1. What is the most common side effect of olanzapine/Zyprexa?
A. Akathisia
B. Dystonia
C. Weight gain
D. Tardive dyskinesia - correct answer-C. Weight gain
Q2. Which organ does depakote cause toxicity, and what symptoms would you expect to
see? Labs to run?
A. Liver, elevated liver enzymes
B. Kidney, hematuria
C. Heart, arrhythmias
D. Lungs, pleural effusion - correct answer-A. Liver, elevated liver enzymes
Q3. What is the difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics?
A. Atypical antipsychotics have fewer side effects
B. Typical antipsychotics have a lower risk of weight gain
C. Atypical antipsychotics selectively block dopamine receptors (5HT2A specific)
D. Typical antipsychotics have a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms - correct answer-
C. Atypical antipsychotics selectively block dopamine receptors (5HT2A specific)
Q4. How should you respond to delusions in a schizophrenic patient?
A. Disprove the delusions
B. Ignore the delusions
C. Notify the authorities and potential victim of harmful delusions, and do not 1 disagree
with the delusion.
D. Increase the dosage of antipsychotic medication - correct answer-C. Notify the
authorities and potential victim of harmful delusions. Do not 1 disagree with the delusion.
Q5. What are MOST LIKELY possible scenarios that place patients at risk of a hypertensive
crisis?
A. Combining SSRIs and TCAs
B. Using MAOIs with tyramine-rich foods
C. MAOIs with asthma medication
D. Lithium and ACE inhibitors - correct answer-B. Using MAOIs with tyramine-rich foods
Q6. Which of these medications has the least risk of weight gain?
,A. Olanzapine
B. Quetiapine
C. Geodon
D. Risperidone - correct answer-C. Geodon
What is the primary treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?
A. Bromocriptine
B. Dantrolene and Bromocriptine
C. Haloperidol
D. Lorazepam - correct answer-B. Dantrolene and Bromocriptine
Q8. What is the primary cause of schizophrenia?
A. Inadequate synapse formation
B. Excessive pruning of synapses
C. Intrauterine insult (drugs/toxin/viral agent/malnutrition/substance use, mental illness,
o2 deprivation)
D. All of the above - correct answer-D. All of the above
Q9. What is the primary advantage of SSRIs for the treatment of depression?
A. Rapid onset of action
B. Lower risk of sexual side effects
C. Safer in overdose
D. Greater efficacy in treating severe depression - correct answer-C. Safer in overdose
Q10. What medication should be avoided for patients with a seizure history or an eating
disorder?
A. Tegretol
B. Lamotrigine
C. Wellbutrin
D. Celexa - correct answer-C. Wellbutrin
Q11. Which of the following medications is a good choice for treating neuropathic pain in a
patient with depression?
A. SSRIs
B. SNRIs and TCAs can be used
C. TCAs
D. Atypical antipsychotics - correct answer-B. SNRIs and TCAs can be used
,Q12. What birth defect can be caused by depakote?
A. Spina bifida
B. Cleft lip
C. Heart defects
D. Anencephaly - correct answer-A. Spina bifida
Q1. If a patient is experiencing severe depression, assess for?
A. SI
B. HI
C. Plan
D. Hallucinations - correct answer-B. HI
C. Plan
Q2. What does a high MMSE score mean?
A. Good
B. Bad
C. Average
D. Poor - correct answer-A. Good
Q3. What is tangential thinking?
A. Arriving at the point directly
B. Never arriving at the point
C. Providing unnecessary details
D. Organizing thoughts in a systematic way - correct answer-B. Never arriving at the point
Q4. What is circumstantial thinking?
A. Arriving at the point directly
B. Never arriving at the point
C. Providing unnecessary details before getting to the point
D. Organizing thoughts in a systematic way - correct answer-C. Providing unnecessary
details
Q6. Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Reflective practice is a process of reflection and critical thinking about one's
own practice, and is not related to feedback.
Statement II: The industry vs inferiority stage of development occurs in early childhood.
Statement III: The intimacy vs isolation stage of development occurs in adolescence.
Which of the above Statement(s) is/are correct?
, A. I only.
B. All Statements are Incorrect.
C. III only.
D. All Statements are Correct. - correct answer-B. All Statements are Incorrect.
Erikson's psychosocial theory.
Stage 1: Trust vs. Mistrust (Infancy from birth to 18 months)
Stage 2: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (Toddler years from 18 months to three years)
Stage 3: Initiative vs. Guilt (Preschool years from three to five)
Stage 4: Industry vs. Inferiority (Middle school years from six to 11)
Stage 5: Identity vs. Confusion (Teen years from 12 to 18)
Stage 6: Intimacy vs. Isolation (Young adult years from 18 to 40)
Stage 7: Generativity vs. Stagnation (Middle age from 40 to 65)
Stage 8: Integrity vs. Despair (Older adulthood from 65 to death)
Reflective practice includes both careful observation of patient's responses, and the use of
such data to consider choices that might lead to greater attunement and more successful
therapy.
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: MMSE scale score of 24 indicates severe cognitive deficit. Statement II: SLUM
scale score of 22 indicates normal cognitive function. Statement III: HAM-D scores of 25-30
indicate severe depression.
2 Which of the above Statement(s) is/are correct:
A. I only.
B. I and III only.
C. III only.
D. All Statements are Correct. - correct answer-C. III only.
SLUM-For individuals who have completed a high school education, the SLUMS score
structure is as follows: 27-30: Indicates regular cognitive function. 21-26: Indicates mild
cognitive impairment. 1-20: Indicates dementia.
HAM-D- Scoring is based on the 17-item scale and scores of 0-7 are considered as being
normal, 8-16 suggest mild depression, 17-23 moderate depression and scores over 24 are
indicative of severe depression [3]; the maximum score being 52 on the 17-point scale.
MMSE- The maximum score for the MMSE is 30. A score of 25 or higher is classed as
normal. If the score is below 24, the result is usually considered to be abnormal, indicating
possible cognitive impairment.
Q8. Read the following statements carefully: