NUR 231 Final Exam Childbearing and Child Caring Family Study Guide
2026 Galen College
1. A nurse calculates a pregnant woman’s estimated date of delivery (EDD) using
Naegele’s rule. If the first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was March 10,
when is the EDD?
A. December 3
B. December 17
C. January 10
D. December 10
Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele’s rule involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days and 1 year to
the first day of the LMP. March 10 minus 3 months is December 10, plus 7 days is
December 17.
2. Using the GTPAL system, how would a nurse document a woman currently
pregnant, who has one 5-year-old child born at 39 weeks, and one miscarriage
at 12 weeks?
A. G3 T1 P0 A1 L1
B. G2 T1 P0 A1 L1
C. G3 T0 P1 A1 L1
D. G2 T1 P1 A0 L1
Answer: A
Rationale: G (Gravida) is 3 (current, 5-year-old, and miscarriage). T (Term) is 1 (5-year-
old born at 39 weeks). P (Preterm) is 0. A (Abortion/Miscarriage) is 1. L (Living) is 1.
,3. Which assessment finding is a classic sign of placenta previa?
A. Rigid, board-like abdomen
B. Hypertonic uterine contractions
C. Dark red vaginal bleeding with severe pain
D. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
Answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Abruptio placentae is associated with painful, dark bleeding and
a rigid abdomen.
4. A client at 32 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 155/95 and
2+ proteinuria. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Eclampsia
C. Chronic hypertension
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: D
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined by hypertension (BP >140/90) and proteinuria after 20
weeks of gestation. Eclampsia involves the addition of seizures.
5. What is the priority nursing intervention for a client receiving Magnesium
Sulfate for preeclampsia who has a respiratory rate of 10 and absent deep
tendon reflexes?
A. Stop the infusion immediately
B. Administer oxygen via face mask
C. Increase the IV fluid rate
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Answer: A
, Rationale: Absent DTRs and low respiratory rate are signs of Magnesium toxicity. The
priority is to stop the medication before administering the antidote, calcium gluconate.
6. During a fetal heart rate monitor assessment, the nurse notes late
decelerations. What is the most likely cause?
A. Head compression
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Fetal movement
Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are non-
reassuring, requiring immediate nursing intervention.
7. Which nursing action is priority immediately following the rupture of
membranes?
A. Assess the fetal heart rate
B. Measure maternal temperature
C. Change the underpads
D. Perform a vaginal exam
Answer: A
Rationale: The priority is to check the fetal heart rate to ensure there is no cord prolapse
following the rush of amniotic fluid.
8. The second stage of labor is defined as:
A. From onset of contractions to full dilation
B. From birth of the infant to delivery of the placenta
C. From full dilation to birth of the infant
D. The first four hours postpartum
Answer: C
2026 Galen College
1. A nurse calculates a pregnant woman’s estimated date of delivery (EDD) using
Naegele’s rule. If the first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was March 10,
when is the EDD?
A. December 3
B. December 17
C. January 10
D. December 10
Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele’s rule involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days and 1 year to
the first day of the LMP. March 10 minus 3 months is December 10, plus 7 days is
December 17.
2. Using the GTPAL system, how would a nurse document a woman currently
pregnant, who has one 5-year-old child born at 39 weeks, and one miscarriage
at 12 weeks?
A. G3 T1 P0 A1 L1
B. G2 T1 P0 A1 L1
C. G3 T0 P1 A1 L1
D. G2 T1 P1 A0 L1
Answer: A
Rationale: G (Gravida) is 3 (current, 5-year-old, and miscarriage). T (Term) is 1 (5-year-
old born at 39 weeks). P (Preterm) is 0. A (Abortion/Miscarriage) is 1. L (Living) is 1.
,3. Which assessment finding is a classic sign of placenta previa?
A. Rigid, board-like abdomen
B. Hypertonic uterine contractions
C. Dark red vaginal bleeding with severe pain
D. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
Answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Abruptio placentae is associated with painful, dark bleeding and
a rigid abdomen.
4. A client at 32 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 155/95 and
2+ proteinuria. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Eclampsia
C. Chronic hypertension
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: D
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined by hypertension (BP >140/90) and proteinuria after 20
weeks of gestation. Eclampsia involves the addition of seizures.
5. What is the priority nursing intervention for a client receiving Magnesium
Sulfate for preeclampsia who has a respiratory rate of 10 and absent deep
tendon reflexes?
A. Stop the infusion immediately
B. Administer oxygen via face mask
C. Increase the IV fluid rate
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Answer: A
, Rationale: Absent DTRs and low respiratory rate are signs of Magnesium toxicity. The
priority is to stop the medication before administering the antidote, calcium gluconate.
6. During a fetal heart rate monitor assessment, the nurse notes late
decelerations. What is the most likely cause?
A. Head compression
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Fetal movement
Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are non-
reassuring, requiring immediate nursing intervention.
7. Which nursing action is priority immediately following the rupture of
membranes?
A. Assess the fetal heart rate
B. Measure maternal temperature
C. Change the underpads
D. Perform a vaginal exam
Answer: A
Rationale: The priority is to check the fetal heart rate to ensure there is no cord prolapse
following the rush of amniotic fluid.
8. The second stage of labor is defined as:
A. From onset of contractions to full dilation
B. From birth of the infant to delivery of the placenta
C. From full dilation to birth of the infant
D. The first four hours postpartum
Answer: C
