NSE 111 / NSE111 Midterm Exam V2 (2026–2027 Updated) | Complete Questions & Answers | Verified Accurate Solutions | Grade A

…. DLDD NSE 111 / NSE111 Midterm Exam V2 (2026–2027 Updated) | Complete Questions & Answers | Verified Accurate Solutions | Grade A Q. What does the 'D' in the DIPPS acronym stand for? ANSWERS Dignity - The state of feeling worthy, valued, and respected. Q. What does the 'I' in the DIPPS acronym represent? ANSWERS Independence - Allowing some independence with patients and encouraging them to perform tasks themselves. Q. What does the 'P' in the DIPPS acronym signify? ANSWERS Preferences - Allowing patients to make decisions on how they would like to approach tasks. Q. What does the second 'P' in the DIPPS acronym stand for? ANSWERS Privacy - Ensuring patients' privacy and confidentiality. Q. What does the 'S' in the DIPPS acronym represent? ANSWERS Safety - Keeping patients in a safe environment and away from harm. Q. What is the primary purpose of the College of Nurses of Ontario (CNO)? ANSWERS to protect the public by regulating the nursing profession in Ontario. Q. What is the first step in the nursing process? ANSWERS Assessment - Collection of data on the client's health status and situation. Q. What is the second step in the nursing process? ANSWERS Diagnosis - Determining key issues and making clinical judgments in the form of a nursing diagnosis. Q. What is the third step in the nursing process? ANSWERS Planning - Creating a formal plan with strategies and alternatives. Q. What is the fourth step in the nursing process? ANSWERS Implementation - Providing health teachings, health promotion activities, and therapies to clients. Q. What is the fifth step in the nursing process? ANSWERS Evaluation - Evaluating clients' responses to selected interventions and determining effectiveness. Q. What is the significance of continual re-evaluation in the modified nursing process? ANSWERS It ensures ongoing assessment and adjustment of care based on client needs. Q. What is the standard of Accountability in CNO's Professional Standards? ANSWERS Each nurse is accountable to the public and must meet legislative requirements and standards of the profession. Q. What does the Continuing Competency standard entail? ANSWERS Maintaining competency by improving knowledge, asking questions, and staying updated. Q. What is the focus of the Ethics standard in nursing? ANSWERS Upholding, acknowledging, respecting, and promoting values and beliefs to the public. Q. What does the Knowledge standard require from nurses? ANSWERS Possessing knowledge and continuing education relevant to nursing practice. Q. What is the purpose of the Knowledge Application standard? ANSWERS To continually improve the application of professional knowledge in practice. Q. What is the role of clinical judgment in nursing? ANSWERS It is the observed outcome of critical thinking and decision-making in patient care. Q. What does the nursing process aim to achieve? ANSWERS To identify, diagnose, and treat actual and potential health issues from a holistic perspective. Q. How should nurses handle client consent? ANSWERS Nurses must obtain clients' consent before proceeding with any procedures. Q. What is a key practice to ensure client safety during procedures? ANSWERS Explain the procedure step-by-step to clients beforehand. Q. What is the importance of addressing clients by name? ANSWERS It fosters respect and personal connection, enhancing the client-nurse relationship. Q. Why is it important to follow standard practice in nursing? ANSWERS To avoid and decrease the risk of pathogen spread and ensure client safety. Q. What should nurses do to protect client rights during procedures? ANSWERS Ensure privacy and respect throughout the entire procedure. Q. What is the importance of identifying a client's ability to perform procedures? ANSWERS It allows nurses to guide clients to self-assist, promoting independence. Q. What is the significance of gentle handling of clients? ANSWERS To avoid injuries to both clients and healthcare providers. Q. What does the Canadian Interprofessional Health Collaborative (CIHC) framework provide? ANSWERS A means for healthcare providers to understand necessary competencies for collaborative practice. Q. What is the main focus of patient-centered care? ANSWERS Placing the patient as the main focus of care, treating them with dignity and respect, and involving them in all health decisions. Q. What does DIPPS stand for in patient-centered care? ANSWERS Dignity, Information, Participation, Privacy, and Safety. Q. What is the role of the College of Nurses of Ontario (CNO)? ANSWERS To provide a framework for nursing practice and link with standards, guidelines, and competencies. Q. What is the CNO Code of Conduct? ANSWERS A set of standards that inform nurses of their accountabilities and the public of what to expect from nurses. Q. What is the chain of infection? ANSWERS A sequence of six links: Infectious agent, Reservoir, Portal of exit, Mode of transmission, Portal of entry, and Host. Q. What are the six links in the chain of infection? ANSWERS 1. Infectious agent 2. Reservoir 3. Portal of exit 4. Mode of transmission 5. Portal of entry 6. Host. Q. What are the types of infectious agents? ANSWERS Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Q. What is a reservoir in the context of infection? ANSWERS A site where pathogens can survive, which may or may not multiply, often found in the human body. Q. What is the portal of exit? ANSWERS The path by which a pathogen leaves its reservoir, such as body openings or breaks in the skin. Q. What are the modes of transmission for infections? ANSWERS Direct contact, indirect contact, droplet, airborne, vehicle, and vectorborne transmission. Q. What is the portal of entry? ANSWERS The path through which a pathogen enters the body, similar to the exit routes. Q. What defines a host in infection control? ANSWERS A person who acquires an infection, dependent on their resistance to the pathogen. Q. What are normal defenses against infection? ANSWERS Immune systems, normal flora, inflammatory response, and unique defenses of organ systems. Q. What are healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)? ANSWERS Infections acquired after admission to a healthcare facility that were not present at the time of admission. Q. What are antimicrobial-resistant organisms (AROs)? ANSWERS Bacteria that are resistant to commonly used antibiotics due to adaptation and overuse. Q. What is asepsis? ANSWERS The process of keeping away disease-producing microorganisms. What is medical asepsis? Clean technique procedures used to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganisms. What is surgical asepsis? Sterile technique procedures used to eliminate all microorganisms from an object or area. What is the difference between cleaning, disinfection, and sterilization? Cleaning removes microorganisms; disinfection removes pathogens except spores; sterilization destroys all microorganisms. What are routine practices in nursing? Guidelines designed to care for all patients regardless of diagnosis, focusing on safety. What is personal protective equipment (PPE)? Equipment used to prevent transmission of infectious agents from patient to staff. What are some examples of PPE? Gowns, gloves, masks, and eyewear. What is the importance of evaluating outcomes in nursing interventions? To describe the effectiveness of specific interventions and modify care plans accordingly. What is the significance of establishing therapeutic nurse-client relationships? To maintain respectful, collaborative, and professional relationships focused on client needs. What should nurses do to recognize potential client abuse? Be vigilant and aware of signs of abuse and take appropriate actions. How does the body protect itself against infections? Through immune responses, normal flora, and inflammatory responses. What factors contribute to the growth and survival of pathogens? Food, oxygen, water, temperature, pH, and minimal light. What is the role of empathy in nursing practice? To demonstrate respect and interest in clients, fostering therapeutic relationships. What is the significance of planning care approaches with clients? To address their needs, preferences, wishes, and hopes effectively. What is the purpose of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)? To prevent transmission of infectious agents from patient-to-staff and vice versa. What should a gown prevent during patient care? Contamination of uniform or clothing. When should gloves be worn? When there is a risk of hand contact with bodily fluids, excretions, or secretions. What is the appropriate use of masks in healthcare settings? Masks should securely cover the nose and mouth, be changed if wet, and not be reused. What are the three types of isolation precautions? Contact, Droplet, and Airborne precautions. What is the role of hand hygiene in infection control? Hand hygiene is the most important technique in preventing the transmission of infections. What is the difference between cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilization? Cleaning removes foreign material, disinfecting eliminates pathogens except spores, and sterilization destroys all microorganisms including spores. What psychological effects might a patient on isolation precautions experience? Feelings of loneliness, stigmatization, and increased depression and anxiety. How can nurses help mitigate the psychological effects of isolation? By communicating with patients about PPE and ensuring they understand it is for their protection. What is the purpose of a personal risk assessment in infection control? To identify and determine which infection prevention and control strategies to implement. What steps are involved in donning PPE? Hand hygiene, gown, mask, eye protection, and gloves. What is the correct order for doffing PPE? Gloves, gown, hand hygiene, eye protection, mask, and hand hygiene again. What should be done with equipment used by more than one client? It must be cleaned between clients. What is the significance of maintaining a clean environment for patients in isolation? To reduce the risk of infection and improve patient comfort. What should be done if a patient is producing bodily fluids? Wear gloves and gown to the contaminated environment and then clean hands. What are the key elements of clinical judgment in infection prevention? Recognize cues, analyze cues, prioritize hypotheses, generate solutions, take action, and evaluate outcomes. What is the Occupational Health and Safety Act's role in healthcare? It sets out the rights and responsibilities of healthcare providers and staff regarding workplace safety. What should be done if hands are visibly dirty? Use hand washing with soap and water. When is alcohol-based sanitizer appropriate for hand hygiene? When hands are not visibly dirty. What is the importance of patient sensory stimulation during isolation? To improve patient comfort and reduce feelings of isolation. What should be ensured when transporting a patient in isolation? Proper PPE is required for the patient. What is the role of nurses in patient accommodation during isolation? To make sure the patient is comfortable and address their sensory needs. What precautions should be taken for patients with MRSA? Use contact precautions, including gloves and gown, in a private or cohort room. What should be done to prevent contamination of clothing during patient care? Wear gowns that cover all outer garments. What is the purpose of a negative pressure airflow room? To contain airborne pathogens, such as TB. What is the first step in routine practice for infection control? Perform a risk assessment. What should be done before and after direct contact with all clients? Hand hygiene must occur. What is the purpose of wearing appropriate PPE? To protect against infection based on risk assessment. What should you do if a patient is coughing? Do not sit in front of them; sit next to them instead. What are the four moments of hand hygiene? 1. Before initial patient contact. 2. Before aseptic procedures. 3. After body fluid exposure risk. 4. After patient contact. Why should rings and watches be removed before hand hygiene? They can increase the number of microorganisms on hands. What is the technique for bed making? To prepare and arrange beds for client comfort and safety. What is an open bed? A bed made for clients who are ambulatory or to welcome a new patient. What is the purpose of bed making? To provide a safe and comfortable environment for the client. What should be done with dirty linens during bed making? Roll them while removing bedding and hold them away from the body. What is the significance of body mechanics in nursing? To conserve energy, reduce strain, and prevent musculoskeletal injuries. What are the three types of injury risk in client handling? 1. Overstretching of muscles. 2. Overexertion. 3. Cumulative damage. What should you do after handling dirty linens? Perform hand hygiene immediately. What is a toe pleat in bed making? A technique to prevent bedding from pressing on patients' toes and legs. What is the importance of client handling procedures? To reduce the risk of musculoskeletal injuries associated with client handling. What should you avoid doing with linens during bed making? Never place dirty linens on the floor. What is the recommended action when preparing to wash hands? Assess your hands for cuts or breaks in the skin. What should be done with the pillowcase opening during bed making? Place it away from the open door. Why is it important to explain bed making to an occupied patient? To ensure patient comfort and awareness of the procedure. What is the purpose of mitered corners in bed making? To secure the sheets and prevent them from coming loose. What should be done to prevent bedsores during bed making? Smooth sides of linens and ensure proper positioning. What should you do with the call bell during bed making? Ensure it is within reach of the patient. What is the significance of performing hand hygiene after using the toilet? To prevent the spread of pathogens. How long should you lather your hands during hand hygiene? For 10-15 seconds. What is the definition of body mechanics? The use of correct musculoskeletal and nervous system to complete tasks safely and efficiently, without causing strain on any muscle or joint. Why is proper body mechanics important for nurses? It ensures nurse safety and the well-being of patients. What should be determined before transferring a patient? How immobile the patient is. What stance should a nurse maintain for proper body mechanics? A proper stance with distribution of weight and a neutral lower back position. What is the benefit of using transfer sheets? To reduce friction and the force required to reposition a patient. What are the three checkpoints for the top body alignment when transferring a patient? 1. Ears in line with shoulders, 2. Shoulders in line with hips, 3. Hips in line with knees. What are the three checkpoints for the bottom body alignment when transferring a patient? 1. Tighten stomach, 2. Push buttocks back while keeping weight over heels, 3. Bend at the hips, not the waist. What is body alignment? The relationship of one body part to another along a horizontal or vertical line. How does body alignment contribute to safety? It reduces strain on musculoskeletal structures and lowers the risk of falls and injury. What is the definition of force in the context of body mechanics? The amount of effort made by the muscles and the pressure on body parts due to job demands. What can excessive force lead to? Damage to muscles and related tendons. What is friction? A force that opposes movement, occurring when two surfaces move across one another. What strategies can be used to avoid friction when lifting patients? Use mechanical lifts, slider sheets, and transfer boards. What is shear force? The force exerted parallel to the skin due to gravity and resistance between the patient and surface. What are ergonomic strategies for lifting? Tighten stomach, bend at knees, keep weight close to the body, and avoid twisting. When is it safe to manually lift a patient? When the patient is cooperative and the weight does not exceed 35 lbs (16 kg). What is the purpose of positioning devices like foot boards? To prevent foot drop and keep the foot in dorsiflexion. What is the recommended maximum weight limit for patient handling tasks? 35 lbs (16 kg) for cooperative patients. What is the significance of maintaining a stable base of support? It is essential for balance and stability during patient transfers. What should be done to maintain good body mechanics? Alternate rest and activity periods to reduce fatigue. What is the role of mechanical lifts in patient handling? They are essential when a patient is unable to assist. What is the purpose of foot boots in patient care? To maintain the foot in dorsiflexion and prevent sliding down in bed. What is the function of a hand roll? Helps prevent contractures in the hand. What do elbow splints prevent? Elbow contractures. What is the purpose of a trochanter roll? Prevents external rotation of the hip. What should be assessed before transferring a client? Clients' mobility and strength to maximize involvement in self-care. What is the recommended method for transferring a client from bed to stretcher? Use a draw or pull sheet or a reducing device. What is the importance of dangling for immobilized patients? It helps assess tolerance and is crucial for those who have been immobile for a long time. What should a nurse do if a patient feels dizzy while ambulating? Consider returning the patient to a supine position and check blood pressure. What is the two nurse method for ambulating a patient? Each nurse supports the patient's waist and arm to distribute weight evenly. What is the role of transfer belts? To assist in transferring patients safely and prevent caregiver back injuries. How should a walker be used? Hold the hand grip, move the walker forward, step with the weaker leg, then step with the unaffected leg. Where should a cane be placed when walking? On the stronger side of the body for support and balance. What should a nurse do if a patient begins to fall? Have a wide base of support and lower the patient to the floor while protecting their head. What are the benefits of activity and exercise on the cardiovascular system? Increases cardiac output, strength, and decreases heart rate and venous return. What are potential complications of immobility on the integumentary system? Skin breakdown, abrasions, pressure injuries, and infection. What causes skin breakdown in immobile patients? Decreased delivery of oxygen and nutrients, inflammation, and pressure. What is friction in the context of patient movement? The force exerted when skin is dragged across a surface. What is shearing force? The force exerted parallel to the skin, resulting from gravity and friction. What factors affect tissue tolerance to pressure? Integrity of tissue, shear, friction, moisture, nutrition, age, and blood pressure. What are the three pressure-related factors that cause pressure ulcers? Pressure intensity, pressure duration, and tissue tolerance. What nursing actions can prevent skin breakdown? Frequent skin assessments, repositioning every 2-3 hours, and applying skin barriers. What is the effect of immobility on muscle and skeletal systems? Reduced muscle tone, joint mobility, muscle mass, and increased fatigue. What should be done to ensure safety during patient transfers? Evaluate the environment and ensure the patient wears supportive non-slip shoes. What is ischemia? A condition that develops when pressure on the skin is greater than the pressure inside the small peripheral blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow. What are common locations for pressure ulcers? Back of the head, ears, shoulder blades, elbows, tailbone, buttocks, hips, and heels. What are the contributing factors to pressure ulcers? Friction, shear, and maceration. What is maceration? Softening and breaking down of skin due to prolonged exposure to moisture. What causes skin maceration? Wound drainage, excessive perspiration, incontinence, and sitting in wet briefs. How can skin breakdown be assessed? By observing areas of skin that differ in color, temperature, and texture compared to surrounding skin. What does the Braden Scale assess? The risk of skin breakdown in patients. What are the risk categories on the Braden Scale? 15-16 = low risk, 13-14 = mid risk, 12 or less = high risk. What is an important nursing intervention for preventing pressure ulcers? Encouraging frequent position changes and using pillows for support. What is the purpose of range of motion (ROM) exercises? To maintain or improve mobility and prevent hazards of immobility. What are the types of range of motion exercises? Active ROM, Active Assistive ROM, and Passive ROM. What should be assessed during ROM exercises? Stiffness, swelling, pain, and limited movement. What nutritional components are essential for wound healing? Adequate protein, carbohydrates, fats, minerals, and vitamins. Which vitamins are important for wound healing? Vitamin A (to decrease steroid side effects) and Vitamin C (for collagen synthesis). What are some considerations for personal hygiene care? Social practices, personal preferences, body image, and physical condition. What is the critical judgment model in nursing? A framework to help nurses assess and analyze cues in patient care. What factors influence personal hygiene? Cultural variables, socioeconomic status, health benefits, and physical limitations. What should be done to assist patients with mobility? Encourage small shifts in position and use proper support for joints. What is the role of the nurse in falls risk assessment? To identify risk factors and implement appropriate interventions. What are common falls risk factors? Age, previous history of falls, confusion, and sensory deficits. What is the importance of clear communication in falls risk interventions? To ensure patient understanding and compliance with safety measures. What should be done after turning a patient? Use pillows to support their alignment in the new position. What is the significance of assessing skin temperature? To identify areas of potential skin breakdown or infection. What is the maximum amount of movement available at a joint called? Range of motion (ROM). What should be monitored during ROM exercises? Signs of fatigue, discomfort, and tolerance to the exercises. What is the primary goal of hygiene care? To assess and support the client's physical, psycho-social, spiritual, and cultural needs. What is the importance of minimizing exposure during bathing? To maintain the dignity of the client and minimize the time they are unclothed. What should be assessed before providing a bath? The client's self-care ability and preferences. What is the proper sequence for washing the body? Start from the cleanest part (face) and work downward towards the feet. What is the correct method for washing the eyes? Use a different part of the washcloth for each eye and wash from inner to outer canthus. What precautions should be taken when providing peri-care? Move from front to back and cleanse the meatus first. What are the risk factors for impaired skin integrity? Immobilization, reduced sensation, nutrition alterations, secretions, vascular insufficiency, and external devices. What is the recommended technique for nail care? Soak fingers, clean under nails, trim straight across, and gently push cuticles back. What should be assessed for foot care in patients with diabetes? Adequacy of circulation, sensation, and daily foot care to prevent ulcers. How should clothing be changed for a client? Encourage the client to do as much as possible and support limbs when changing garments. What techniques can be used for oral hygiene in clients with dementia? Use a hand-over-hand technique and a two-person approach for assistance. What is the significance of using gloves during shaving care? To maintain hygiene and protect both the client and caregiver. What is the best practice for cleaning the ears? Use a moistened washcloth to clean the auricles and never insert sharp objects. What should be done to ensure the client is comfortable during bathing? Ensure the client is warm, comfortable, and assess their tolerance for activity. What is the proper way to assess skin integrity during a bath? Check skin, hair, eyes, ears, nose, mouth, nails, and feet for condition. What is the purpose of using a bath blanket? To provide privacy and warmth during the bathing process. What is the recommended approach for clients with peripheral vascular disease? Assess for adequacy of circulation and provide careful foot care. What is the recommended method for washing the face? Use a clean washcloth and move from the center outwards. What should be done if a client has a history of Deep Vein Thrombosis? Avoid using long firm strokes on lower limbs during bathing. What aspects should be assessed during an oral hygiene assessment? Color, hydration, texture, gums, tongue, teeth, lips, and breath. What are some common oral problems to look for during an assessment? Pain, inflammation, infection, lesions, fissures, and ulcers. How does aging affect oral hygiene risk? Older adults are at risk for poor oral hygiene due to various factors including chronic illnesses and cognitive impairments. What are some chronic conditions that can impact oral hygiene? Diabetes mellitus, chemotherapy, and radiation. What medication side effects may affect oral hygiene? Immunosuppressants. What is dysphagia and how does it relate to oral hygiene? Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing, which can complicate oral hygiene practices. What is edentulous? A condition of having no natural teeth. What can cause periodontal disease? Weakening of the periodontal membrane leading to infection. How can chronic illnesses affect dental health? They increase the risk for periodontal disease. What issues can arise from improperly fitting dentures? Pain, digestive issues, and poor nutritional status. What is xerostomia? Dry mouth due to reduced saliva secretion, often linked to aging or medications. What are some interventions for stomatitis and xerostomia? Increase oral hygiene frequency, hydrate, use water-soluble lubricants, and avoid commercial mouthwash. What position should an unconscious client be in for oral hygiene? Sims position with the head turned towards the nurse. What is the proper angle for brushing teeth? At a 45-degree angle. How often should a toothbrush be replaced? Every 3 months. What is micturition? The process of emptying the bladder. What is nocturia? Waking up at night to void. What is urinary retention? Accumulation of urine in the bladder due to its inability to empty. What is urinary incontinence? Involuntary loss of urine. What factors can influence urination? Disease conditions, medication, surgical procedures, and mobility. What should be assessed in a urinary assessment? Health history, physical assessment, and characteristics of urine. What is the average daily fluid intake for adults? 2200 to 2700 ml per day. What is the correct method for perineal care in males? Retract foreskin, cleanse urethral meatus first, then wash penis and scrotum. What is the correct method for perineal care in females? Wipe from least to greatest contamination, starting at the urethra. What are some nursing interventions to promote normal micturition? Encourage regular voiding, provide sensory stimuli, and maintain fluid intake. What is defecation? The process of emptying the bowel. What is constipation? Difficulty in evacuating feces or inability to defecate at will. What is diarrhea? Increase in the number of stools and passage of liquid, unformed feces. What is bowel incontinence? Inability to control the passage of feces and gas from the anus. What factors influence bowel elimination? Diet, fluid intake, physical activity, and personal habits. What are the characteristics of stool to assess? Color, odor, consistency, amount, and shape. How can normal defecation be promoted? Establish a daily routine, maintain adequate fluid and fiber intake, and ensure privacy. What should be done with an incontinent brief? Position it correctly, document any irregularities, and ensure proper hygiene. What are some common oral hygiene assessment factors? Assess for color, hydration, texture, gums, tongue, teeth, lips, and breath. What oral problems should be looked for during an assessment? Look for pain, inflammation, infection, lesions, fissures, and ulcers. What are some risk factors for poor oral hygiene in older adults? Edentulous status, chronic illnesses, cognitive impairment, and financial limitations. What should be avoided in mouth care for patients with stomatitis? Avoid commercial mouthwash; use saline rinse instead. What should be done if a client is unconscious? Never use fingers to hold the mouth open; use a padded tongue blade instead. What is the average fluid intake recommended per day? The average fluid intake is about 2200ml to 2700ml per day. What is the process of defecation? Defecation is the process of emptying the bowel. What are some characteristics of stool to assess? Assess color, odor, consistency, amount, shape, and constituents. What nursing interventions promote normal micturition? Encourage regular voiding, maintain adequate fluid intake, and provide sensory stimuli. What should be documented when assessing denture care? Document cracks or irregularities and assess if the denture fits the client. What is the recommended dietary fiber intake for bowel health? The recommended dietary fiber intake is 25 to 30g per day. What should be done to promote bowel elimination? Establish a daily bowel routine and maintain adequate fluid and food intake. What is the significance of maintaining perineal hygiene? Good perineal hygiene helps reduce the risk of urinary tract infections. What should be done with an incontinence brief? Position it correctly, ensuring the lining is next to the client's skin. What should be the position of the tape tabs when fitting a brief on a client? The tape tabs should be at the back of the client. What is the recommended method for rolling a client onto a brief? Roll the client onto the back and bring the front of the brief through the client's legs. What is a key point to remember when assisting with elimination? Provide privacy. What is the impact of malnutrition on hospital stays? Malnutrition increases hospital stays by approximately 3 days longer than nourished patients. What is the role of nutritional screening? To identify characteristics associated with nutrition problems and those who would benefit from further assessment by a dietitian. What factors can affect serum albumin levels? Hydration, hemorrhage, renal or hepatic disease, and trauma. What is nitrogen balance and why is it important? Nitrogen balance is calculated as nitrogen intake minus nitrogen loss and is useful for evaluating protein metabolism. What is the growth pattern for toddlers regarding food intake? Growth rate slows; small, frequent meals are recommended. What dietary changes occur in school-aged children? Decline in energy requirements; need for protein and vitamins A & C. What nutritional needs increase during adolescence? Energy needs, protein, calcium, vitamin D, and iron. What factors can affect nutritional intake in older adults? Cognitive impairment, low income, medications, and physical decline. What are some factors that promote appetite in hospitalized patients? Eliminating unpleasant odors, providing oral hygiene, and maintaining comfort. What is the importance of a dietary history? To understand food practices, allergies, symptoms, and nutritional knowledge. What is the recommended energy intake for infants from 6 to 9 months? 95 kcal/kg/day. Why is it important to monitor food intake in adolescents? To prevent body image issues, eating disorders, and ensure adequate nutrition. What is the role of physical activity in nutrition? It is essential for maintaining a healthy diet and overall well-being. What should be the focus of dietary recommendations for young and middle-aged adults? Nutrients for energy, maintenance, and repair, while managing obesity risks. What are the implications of malnutrition in cardiac patients? Poorer quality of life, physical functioning, and higher care complexity. What is the significance of monitoring fluid and food intake in patients? To ensure adequate hydration and nutrition based on individual needs. How does aging affect nutritional needs? Age-related changes can affect digestion and lead to increased risk of malnutrition. What dietary component is critical for pregnant women? Calcium, vitamin D, and folic acid. What is the recommended approach for introducing new foods to toddlers? Introduce new foods one at a time. What is the significance of a 24-hour recall in dietary history? It helps assess recent food intake and identify potential nutritional issues. What should be eliminated to promote a patient's appetite? Unpleasant odors Which medications can affect dietary and nutrient intake? Insulin, glucocorticoids, thyroid hormones, and antifungal agents What is dysphagia? Difficulty when swallowing What are common warning signs of dysphagia? Coughing during eating, change in voice tone after swallowing, abnormal mouth movements, slow or weak speech, abnormal gag reflex, delayed swallowing, incomplete oral clearance, pocketing of food, regurgitation What is aspiration pneumonia? A condition caused by the misdirection of oropharyngeal secretions or gastric contents into the larynx and lower respiratory tracts What are the signs and symptoms of aspiration pneumonia? Elevated respiratory rate, fever, cough, chills, pleuritic chest pain, crackles, delirium, increased confusion or falls What nursing interventions can assist clients with dysphagia? Elevate head of bed, observe food consumption, use small amounts of food, assess swallowing, allow multiple attempts, provide verbal coaching, thicken foods/fluids, assess for pocketing What is the role of the nurse in reporting patient safety incidents? Complete an incident report that is confidential and describes any patient incident What is the purpose of an incident report in healthcare? To identify trends or patterns of incidents and examine areas for improvement What are some risks to patient safety in healthcare settings? Falls, procedure-related accidents, medication errors, equipment-related accidents What factors increase the risk of falls in elderly patients? Age, history of previous falls, gait and balance issues, postural hypotension, sensory impairment, medication use What is a restraint in healthcare? A measure used to control the physical or behavioral activity of a person What are some reasons for using restraints? To protect from injury, protect others from injury, maintain treatment What are potential complications of restraint use? Respiratory issues, skin breakdown, contractures, incontinence, emotional distress, impaired circulation What is the CNO's mission? Regulating nursing in the public's interest What is one of the professional standards of the CNO? Accountability: Each nurse is accountable to the public and must meet legislative requirements How can nurses maintain competency according to CNO standards? By improving knowledge, asking questions, staying updated, and engaging in professional development What is the importance of alternative food patterns in patient care? To respect cultural meanings of food and accommodate dietary restrictions based on religion or personal preferences What should be assessed when collaborating with clients regarding nutrition? Eating patterns, social determinants of health, personal resources, goals, concerns, and knowledge about nutrition What is the best practice for mealtime assistance for clients with dysphagia? Elevate the head of the bed and provide assistance tailored to individual needs What are some alternatives to restraints in patient care? Providing companionship, supervision, diversionary activities, and attending to basic needs What is the role of pharmacological agents in managing nutrition-related issues? To stimulate appetite or manage symptoms that interfere with nutrition What are some signs of aspiration risk? Decreased alertness, decreased cough or gag reflex, difficulty managing saliva, wet or gurgling voice What is the recommended position for clients during mealtime assistance? Hips flexed at 90 degrees and head slightly forward What is the impact of restraints on fall risk? Clients are 14 times more likely to fall if restrained compared to those who are not What is the significance of documentation in the use of restraints? To ensure ongoing assessment and communication with the healthcare team and family What is the primary role of nurses in identifying ethical issues? To communicate ethical issues with the health team. What knowledge should each nurse possess? Theoretical and evidence-based rationales for decisions and access to information. How do nurses improve the application of professional knowledge? By acknowledging limits of practice and consulting patients appropriately. What is the significance of leadership in nursing? Nurses should take initiative to provide and promote the best possible care/service. What are the indicators of establishing professional relationships in nursing? Respect, empathy, and interest for the public. What is the purpose of the Quality Assurance (QA) Program in nursing? To ensure lifelong learning is essential to continuing competence. What is self-awareness in the context of nursing practice? A self-directed process that results in a learning plan through reflection. What are the two basic skills needed for reflection? Self-awareness and critical thinking. What does the acronym LEARN stand for in reflective practice? Look back, Elaborate, Analyze, Revise, New perspective. What are SMART goals in nursing? Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-limited goals for personal development. What is the overall goal of the GPA module in dementia care? To use a person-centered approach to respond respectfully to behaviors associated with dementia. What does personhood mean in the context of dementia? Recognizing individuals as unique persons beyond their disease. What are malignant interactions with persons with dementia? Actions that infantilize, outpace, impose, label, ignore, or intimidate individuals. What are personhood-promoting interactions? Validate, collaborate, facilitate, play & celebrate, and relax with the person. What needs do persons with dementia have? To share love, feel competent, have a sense of belonging, be useful, and feel hope. What is the impact of labeling a person with dementia? It can lead to damaging interactions and responsive behaviors. How should nurses approach care for persons with dementia? By recognizing the person behind the disease and supporting their unique history and abilities. What does it mean to validate a person's feelings in dementia care? Supporting and acknowledging a person's emotions and feelings. What is the importance of collaboration in dementia care? Working together enhances a person's abilities and encourages control and choice. What does it mean to facilitate in the context of dementia care? Accommodating a person's disabilities to enable task completion. Why is it important to help a person with dementia relax? To make them comfortable and reduce intellectual demands. What is the significance of recognizing the unique history of a person with dementia? It acknowledges their individuality and the capacity for interpersonal relationships. What is the role of empathy in nursing relationships? To establish respectful and collaborative therapeutic relationships. What is the significance of understanding behavioral responses? Each behavioral response has meaning and is often linked to unmet needs. What are common behavioral responses in individuals with dementia? Agitation, talking, and erratic behavior. What are chemical restraints? Medications used to control behavior or restrict movement, not to treat medical conditions. What behaviors may not respond to medication? Wandering, vocally disruptive behavior, repetitive activities, hiding, and hoarding. What are physical restraints? Equipment that restricts free movement or body access, such as rails. What risks are associated with physical restraints? Decline in physical function, infection, constipation, pressure ulcers, delirium, and feelings of discomfort. What is the ABC triangle in relation to behavior? A: Affective (emotions), B: Behavior (actions), C: Cognition (thoughts). What does the SPEED model describe? Information processing stages: Speed, Perception, Emotion, Evaluation, Demonstrated behavior. What are the characteristics of normal aging compared to dementia? Normal aging involves independence in daily activities, while dementia leads to dependence on others. What is amnesia in the context of dementia? Loss of memory, affecting both short-term and long-term memory. What is aphasia? Loss of language, affecting verbal expression, reading, understanding, and writing. What does agnosia refer to? Loss of recognition, including difficulty using the five senses. What is apraxia? Loss of purposeful movement, making daily activities challenging. What are altered perceptions in dementia? Loss of environmental perception, leading to misinterpretations of surroundings. What is anosognosia? Loss of self-awareness, where individuals are unaware of their deficits. What are common causes of delirium? Medications, infections, impaired kidney function, electrolyte imbalance, and withdrawal. What is the CAM algorithm used for? To assess delirium by measuring sudden onset, fluctuating course, inattention, disorganized thinking, and altered consciousness. What is the role of the PIECES framework? To guide comprehensive assessments of unmet needs and triggers in dementia care. What is the Stop and Go Approach in caregiving? A method to pause, think, observe, and plan before resuming care. What are the four steps to redirection in dementia care? Validate reality, join in the person's perspective, distract, and redirect. What is the difference between delirium and dementia? Delirium is a sudden, reversible change in mental status, while dementia is a progressive cognitive disorder. What is the impact of caregiver actions on the interpersonal environment? Care provider actions can trigger behavioral responses and affect the overall environment. What strategies can help support individuals with dementia? Using routines, visual aids, simplifying tasks, and promoting communication. What is the importance of observation in dementia care? To accurately assess the abilities and needs of the individual rather than making assumptions. What are the implications of preventing delirium? Identifying risks, screening, treating underlying causes, and applying caregiving strategies. What is the significance of understanding the relationship between brain changes and behavior in dementia? It helps in identifying behavioral and care implications related to dementia.