Eat Right Prep Exam 2026/2027 Latest Update | Complete Study Guide | Verified Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Pass Guaranteed

Eat Right Prep Exam 2026/2027 Latest Update | Complete Study Guide | Verified Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Pass Guaranteed Q: Which of the following is a characteristic typically associated with the discussion method of teaching? A. Helps learners master higher level cognitive objectives. B. Appeals to several of the learners senses simultaneously. C. Works well for accomplishing objectives in the psychomotor domain. D. Provides the instructor with most control of the teaching-learning situation than most other methods. Helps learners master higher-level cognitive objectives (Reason: Cognitive domain involves knowledge and the development of intellectual skills. This serves in the development of learning). Q: According to the CDR`s Essential Practice Competencies, graduates of accredited dietetics programs are required to have knowledge in 8 content areas; physical & biological sciences, social sciences, research, and ____________. A. Foodservice systems B. Communications. C. Public Policy. D. MNT. Communications (Reason: The variety of topics expected to be studied by an RDN professional are supported by biological, physiological, behavioral, and communication. Q: Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen into glucose. This occurs in the cells of the _____. A. Stomach and Small Intestine. B. Liver and Muscle C. Kidney and Brain D. Small intestine and Kidney. Liver and muscle Q: Which agency regulates the manufacturing of cream of chicken soup that contains almost no meat? A. FSIS (Food Safety and Inspection Service) B. FDA C. USDA D. USPHS (US Public Health Service). Food and Safety Inspection Service (FSIS) (Reason: This agency is responsible for the inspection of canned product manufacturing). Q: How many kcal per oz does a standard infant formula provide? 20 kcal/oz Q: In the Campinha-Bacote Model, cultural competence originates in the ______. A. Individual B. Family C. Community D. Society Individual Q: What production forecasting method would be used if an assumption was made that actual occurrences follow an identifiable pattern overtime? A. Exponential smoothing B. Moving average C. Linear Regression D. Both A and B Exponential smoothing & moving average (Reason: Gregoire and Spears identified that the frequently used time series forecasting model involves the assumption that actual occurrences follow an identifiable pattern overtime). Q: What name is given to the purchasing document that is completed by the buyer and given to the supplier? A. FOB origin B. Purchase Requisition C. Invoice D. Purchase order Purchase order Q: Upon quarterly audit, the accountant found an error: The beginning inventory for the month of January was overstated. How would this effect the cost of goods sold (COGS) and net income for the month of January? A. The COGS for January would be MORE than it actually was, and the net income would be less than it actually was. B. The COGS for January would be LESS than it actually was, and the net income would be less than it actually was. C. The COGS for January would be MORE than it actually was, and the net income would be more than it actually was. D. The COGS for January would NOT be affected, and the net income for February would be less than it actually was. The COGS for January would be MORE than it actually was, and the net income would be LESS than it actually was. Q: The astringent taste of F/V is the result of the following component: A. Anthocyanin B. Tannin. C. Carotene. D. Monosodium Glutamate Tannins Q: One of the key differences in value analysis and value added is A. Value analysis strives to reduce cost whereas value added strives to bundle components B. Value analysis seeks to reduce cost whereas value added seeks to increase market value. C. Value analysis seeks to reduce costs whereas value added seeks to add quality component. D. Value analysis seeks to change the value of the product whereas value added seeks to reduce cost. Value analysis seeks to reduce cost where added seeks to increase market value Q: The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) enables the FDA to better protect public health because it allows FDA to now focus more on: A. Preventing food safety problems B. Inspecting food production systems C. Scrutinizing the Importation of food D. Ordering prompt recalls of tainted foods and bevs. Preventing food safety problems (Reason: FSMA was signed by Obama in January 4th 2011). Q: Employees should be excluded from working in any type of foodservice establishment if they have any of the following symptoms: A. N/V/D B. Vomiting, Jaundice, Coughing C. Sore throat, Vomiting, Diarrhea D. Vomiting, Diarrhea, Jaundice Vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice Q: Home canning is a very popular method of food preservation. To ensure safe foods, appropriate canning methods must be used. Which of the following is the safe and recommended method for canning foods above pH 4.5? A. Boiling water canning B. Pressure canning C. Steam canning D. Oven method canning Pressure canning (Reason: Low acid foods with pH greater than 4.6 such as veggies, meats, dried beans, all soups, need to be preserved using a pressure canner. High acid foods with pH lower than 4.6 need to be preserved using a water bath canner). Q: Which statement best describes the "U" component of the FOCUS-PDSA performance improvement model? A. Identify a process to improve B. Develop a team C. Explain the current process D. Recognize sources of variation Recognize sources of variation (Reason: F stage: identify a process to improve; O stage: develop a team; C stage: explain the current process). Q: A facility director is charged with evaluating whether it is worthwhile to complete a project. The best approach would be to: A. Conduct a productivity study. B. Determine the startup funds needed. C. Conduct a cost-benefit analysis. D. Determine the number of people involved. Conduct a cost-benefit analysis. Q: The standards of professional ______ for dietetics professionals describes in general terms a competent level of behavior in the professional role. A. Practice B. Performance C. Preparation D. Proficiency Performance (Reason: These standards describe competency levels of professional behavior by an individual). Q: What flavor enhancer from seaweed might be included in a recipe to provide "umami?" A. Monosodium Glutamate B. Magnesium Sulfate C. Carrageenan D. Calcium Alginate Monosodium Glutamate Q: In order to be labeled as "pure" vanilla, the US Food and Drug Administration requires that it: A. Be certified as an artificial flavor B. Contain the small black flecks from the vanilla pod C. Contain 35% alcohol by volume D. Contain 200 ppm vanillin. Contains 35% alcohol by volume (Reason: pure vanilla extract is made by mixing vanilla beans in a solution of ethyl alcohol and water; FDA requires that it contains 35% alcohol by volume and 13.35 oz of vanilla bean per gallon). Q: Which of the following best defines that USDA quality grading system? A. All meat and poultry must meet strict quality standards to be sold in the US marketplace. B. Quality grading of meat and poultry is a voluntary process. C. Quality grading and inspection for wholesomeness are both mandatory for meat to enter into the marketplace. D. Quality grading is a free service provided by the USDA. Quality grading of meat and poultry is a voluntary process (Reason: Inspection for wholesomeness is MANDATORY; grading for quality is VOLUNTARY). Q: To maintain quality and freshness of refrigerated produce, upon receiving these items, they should be placed directly into cold storage and held at temperatures between A. 55 and 60*F B. 41 and 48*F C. 34 and 36*F D. 30 and 35*F 34 and 36*F Q: Consider the following scenarios: 52 yr old male; weight: 163 lbs; Height: 5`11"; BMI: 22.7. Current Meds: Metformin: 1g; Saxtagliptin: 5mg; Glucotrol XL: 10 mg. Lab results: HbA1c: 13.9%; Fasting BG: 356 mg/dL; positive GAD test. Physician puts in a referral that states: " Patient needs diet instruction." Which of the following would be the best actions for the RD to take? A. Educate the patient about low carbohydrate foods to minimize glucose elevations. B. Contact the referring physician to consider insulin therapy. C. Emphasize meal spacing and carb consistency D. Negotiate a weight loss of 5 to 7% body weight loss. Contact the referring physician to consider insulin therapy. Reason: Positive GAD test shows that patient has type I diabetes and will need insulin therapy. Q: Which is the best tool for the community nutritionist to use to learn what locally grown food residents consume most frequently? A. Health Risk Appraisal B. Screening C. Focus Group D. Survey Surveys. Reason: least expensive systematic study of a cross-section of individuals. Which of the following gastrointestinal hormones has the effect of increasing the consumption of food? A. Cholecystokinin B. Ghrelin C. Enterostatin D. Peripheral Hormone Peptide YY Ghrelin. Reason: Appetite stimulant but also a strong stimulant of growth hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary. Which foods should not be consumed by people with compromised immune systems? A. Eggs cooked to 165*F B. Pasteurized cider C. Rare Steak D. Soft Cheeses such as brie or feta Soft cheeses such as feta or brie. Reason: Because these cheeses contain live mold; not safe for someones immune system if its compromised. After defining the nutritional problem while conducting a community needs assessment, what is the next step? A. Identify community groups and their leaders B. Determine the purpose of the needs assessment C. Collect information on health and nutrition resources available in the community D. Review available data such as Census records Determine the purpose of the needs assessment. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics takes the position that pediatric overweight intervention programs require a combo of the following programs? A. School based multi-component programs and community based interventions B. Family based multi component programs and environmental interventions C. Community based interventions and environmental interventions D. Family based and school based multi component programs Family based and and school based multi component programs. Which of the following lunch menus reflect proper menu planning principles? A. Steamed haddock, rice, roasted cauliflower, vanilla frozen yogurt with fresh pineapple B. Baked pork chop, sauteed broccoli, rice pilaf, vanilla frozen yogurt with strawberries., C. Grilled chicken breast, mashed potato, steamed parsnips, lemon sorbet D. Meatballs, whole tiny potatoes, brussel sprouts, fresh bing cherries. Baked pork chop; sauteed broccoli; rice pilaf; vanilla frozen yogurt with strawberries; Reason: Best use of color in a lunch meal, variety of flavors, textures, consistencies, and food shapes. When using the plan-to-study (PDSA) process, which of the following occurs during the "plan" phase? A. Determine how to collect data B. Train staff on the new process C. Evaluate the effectiveness of the project D. Reduce wait time for appointments Determine how to collect data Which of the following elements is NOT part of the Institutes of Medicines (IOM) framework for health quality? A. Patient-centered B. Equitable C. Timely D. Focused on choosing a process to improve Focused on choosing a process to improve. Reason: IOM defines health care quality as care that is patient centered, equitable, timely, safe, effective, and efficient. Which statement best describes the "A" component of the PDSA performance improvement model? A. Determine how changes will be implemented B. Implement the intervention C. Determine the impact of the intervention D. Maintain and continue improvement. Maintain and continue improvement Reason: "A" stands for Act to maintain and continue. Which statement best describes the "O" component of the FOCUS-PDSA performance improvement model? A. Identify a process to improve B. Develop a team C. Explain the current process D. Recognize sources of variation Develop a team. Reason: "O" stands for Organize a team that knows the process. Which statement best describes the "S" component of the PDSA performance improvement model? A. Determine how changes will be implemented B. Implement the intervention C. Determine the impact of intervention D. Maintain and continue improvement Determine the impact of the intervention. Reason: "S" stands for Check the Results. According to the Uniform Requirements for Manuscripts Submitted to Biomedical Journals, to be designated as an author, one must have made substantial contributions to A. Design or analysis and interpretation of data B. Selection and assignments of subjects C. Acquisition of funding and administration of the department D. General supervision of the research group. Design or analysis and interpretation of data. Reason: Author should be involved in all aspects of the research. Which of the following is the recommended amount of caffeine for healthy children aged 5-12 years of age? A. 10 mg/kg B. 1 mg/kg C. 3 mg/kg D. 5 mg/kg 3 mg/kg Reason: Children should not exceed 100 mg/day. The breakdown of FA to yield acetyl-coa is called A. Glycolysis B. Lipolysis C. Ketogenesis D. Beta-oxidation Beta-oxidation Reason: First step of FA catabolism is Beta-Oxidation. Which nutrient is most susceptible to loss in foods? A. Water soluble vitamins B. Fat soluble vitamins C. Carbs D. Proteins Water soluble vitamins In order to prevent deterioration by slowing respiration, _____________ would be stored in modified-atmosphere packaging. A. Bottled water B. Apple slices C. Ground turkey D. OJ Apple slices. Reason: This reduces the spoilage of apple slices which are more prone to browning as a result of oxidation. Which of the following accurately describes how alcohol is digested and absorbed? A. Alcohol requires no digestion and is absorbed by simple diffusion B. Alcohol is digested in the stomach and absorbed primarily from the small intestine C. Alcohol is digested in and absorbed primarily from the stomach D. Alcohol requires no digestion and is absorbed by active transport. Alcohol requires no digestion and is absorbed by simple diffusion. According to regulations, what is the most caffeine that can be in a 12-oz serving of soda pop? A. 21 mg B. 55 mg C. 71 mg D. 100 mg Can NOT exceed 71 mg of caffeine Reason: Regulated by the FDA. An item with less than _______ kcal per serving can be considered calorie free? A. 45 B. 35 C. 15 D. 5 5 kcal/serving. Anthocyanin in turnips may change to a blue-black or red-brown color if heated excessively in all of the following type of pans except? A. Cast iron B. Stainless steel C. Porcelain D. Aluminum Cast iron Reason: Metals such as iron, tin, and sometimes aluminum will turn the anthocyanin pigment into different shades of blue. Which food processing method has been linked to cancer in laboratory animals? A. Smoke curing B. Pickling C. Freeze-drying D. Irradiation Smoke curing Which federal agency is charged with tracking outbreaks of food borne illness? A. CDC B. FTC (Federal Trade Commission C. USDA D. WHO. CDC Reason: FTC, USDA, WHO all monitor other health-related issues. Which of the following examples of a snack provided at a child care center would meet reimbursement guidelines and comply with USDA regulations for Child and Adult Care Food Program meals? A. Carrot sticks and 100% fruit juice B. Oatmeal, corn muffins, and water C. Apple slices and orange wedges D. Cottage cheese, mandarin oranges and water Cottage cheese, mandarin oranges, and water Reason: Nutritional requirement for snacks: Must provide a combo of AT LEAST 2 items from the meat, milk, grains, F/V categories. The USDA grade of beef NOT purchased for general foodservice use is? A. Choice B. Select C. Standard D. Commercial Commercial Reason: Grades that are not purchased for foodservice use include Commercial; Utility; Cutter; and Canner- due to their poor taste quality. In the receiving process, which step should be taken first? A. Send items to storage B. Compare the purchase order and invoice C. Reject the items D. Inspect the items against the invoice Compare the purchase order and invoice. Reason: This ensures that the products accepted were actually ordered. Which grouping of established USDA standards contains the correct relationship? A. Round inspection stamp B. Grade shield, quality, mandatory process C. Round inspection stamp, quality, voluntary process D. Grade shield, wholesomeness, voluntary process Round inspection stamp, wholesomeness, mandatory process. Reason: The round inspection stamp indicates that meat and poultry has been inspected for wholesomeness- this is mandatory; Grading is voluntary. What is another name for high-pressure processing? A. Ohmic heating B. Irradiation C. Pulsed light D. Pascalization Pascalization Reason: method of preserving and sterilizing food- results in the inactivation of certain microorganisms and enzymes in the food. What is ozone used for in food processing? A. Freezing food B. Modifying atmospheric packaging C. Blanching vegetables D. Disinfecting and sanitizing Disinfecting and sanitizing. Reason: Ozone is a safe but powerful disinfectant used by the food industry that has the ability to disinfect microorganisms without adding chemical by-products to the food being treated. To lower LDL cholesterol levels, the Academy`s Evidence Analysis Library recommends which level of daily plant sterol consumption? A. 2-3 mg/day B. 4-5 mg/day C. 6-8 mg/day D. 10-12 mg/day 2-3 mg/day. Reason: This amount has been identified by EAL to decrease total cholesterol by 4-11% and LDL concentration by 7-15%. Choose the statement that best describes the function of Copper? A. It is involved in taste perception B. It is a component of the thyroid hormone C. It is necessary for the formation of hemoglobin D. It enhances insulin activity It is necessary in the formation of hemoglobin. Which of the following is an example of positive correlation? A. The amount of weight gained by pregnant women during the first trimester has been found to decrease as the number of episodes of nausea and vomiting increase. B. The incidence of T2D increases as central adiposity increases C. Consuming calories in excess of those needed results in an increased generalized adiposity. D. Blood pressure in certain genetic groups appears to decrease as the consumption of dietary sodium is reduced. The incidence of T2D increases as central adiposity increases. Which of the following foods is likely to be consumed by a lacto-vegetarian? A. Scrambled eggs B. Tuna fish salad C. Hamburger D. Grilled cheese sandwich Grilled cheese sandwich. Which fat would be more susceptible to flavor reversion due to oxidative rancidity? A. Butter fat B. Coconut oil C. Soybean oil D. Olive oil Soybean oil Which food is most likely to deteriorate due to hydrolytic rancidity during storage at room temperature? A. Fish oil B. Soybean oil C. Olive oil D. Butter Butter The BMI for class I obesity is: 30-34.9 BMI Which of the following measures of obesity correlate best with obesity associated disease risk? A. BMI B. Skinfold Thickness C. Abdominal Body Shape Index D. Waist Circumference Waist circumference Which of the following bacteria is anaerobic and poses a threat to the safety of home-canned goods? A. Staph. Aureus B. Clostr. Perfringens C. Clostr. Botulinum D. Aspergillus Flavus Clostridium botulism All of the following statements about patient centered medical homes (PCMH) are true, EXCEPT: A. The cost for chronic care is reduced B. Electronic medical records are essential C. Patients are responsible for access to care D. The team of providers changes as the health care needs differ. Patients are responsible for access to care. All of the following statements about Intensive Behavioral Therapy (IBT) benefit for obese Medicare Part B beneficiaries are true, EXCEPT: A. Coverage for the benefit is granted only in the primary care setting B. In order to qualify, the beneficiary must be 30 BMI. C. Continued treatment for obesity is contingent on weight loss assessed at the 7th month of treatment. D. RDN`s may provide the service and bill Medicare using a unique physician identification number. RDN`s may provide the service and bill Medicare using a unique physician ID number. Dietetics students finishing supervised practice should be able to: A. Develop a virtual learning environment B. Use project management tools C. Use computer application for advanced statistical analysis D. Utilize an electronic health record and food and nutrition management systems and print educational materials for clients. Utilize an electronic health record and food and nutrition management systems and print educational materials for clients. Dry food should be stored between: A. 40-60*F B. 32-52*F C. 50-70*F D. 65-85*F 50-70*F. Reason: Temperatures 50*F are not needed since dry foods are not perishable & temperatures 70*F may shorten the shelf life. Which quick freezing process incorporates very low temperatures (-140*F) with liquid nitrogen or carbon dioxide? A. Air blasting freezing B. Cryogenic freezing C. Plate or contact freezing D. Immersion freezing Cryogenic freezing Reason: Requires temperatures below (-248*F). Typically uses helium-which is liquid state in extremely freezing temperatures. Another name for irradiation is: A. Cold pasteurization B. Ohmic heating C. Gamma bombarding D. Pulsed light. Cold pasteurization At what levels do leptin and ghrelin promote excess food intake? A. Low leptin, high ghrelin B. High leptin, low ghrelin C. Low leptin, low ghrelin D. High leptin, high ghrelin Low leptin, high ghrelin. A patient presents with lesions in the gums and pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin. What vitamin is this patient most likely deficient in? A. Thiamin B. Magnesium C. Vitamin C D. Selenium Vitamin C Which of the following AA is classified as non-essential? A. Valine B. Lysine C. Glycine D. Threonine Glycine Reason: Essential AA include: Histidine, Isoleucine, Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, Tryptophan and Valine. (Acronym: HILL MVPTT) Which of the following foods is the best source of omega-3 FA? A. Olive oil B. Shrimp C. Avocado D. Sardines Sardines Other sources of Omega-3 FA: Fatty fish; salmon, tuna, halibut. What name is given to the chronological sequence of activities to carry out organizational behavior? A. Policy B. Procedure C. Method D. Rule Procedure Example of chemical spoilage? A. Acidic action of foods with metal-lined containers B. Metal curls from a workout can opener that fall into the food when the can is being opened. C. Development of an off-flavor due to uncontrolled enzyme reaction D. Anasakis contamination of fish Acidic action of foods with metal lined containers. Which kind of damage results from dehydration of a frozen breaded chicken patty due to extreme cold? A. Caking B. Contamination due to excessive additives C. Crystallization D. Freezer burn Freezer burn. Reason: Occurs as a result of dehydration and oxidation to frozen foods, commonly induced by substandard (non-airtight) packaging. The observed result or outcome of interest in a research project is the A. Dependent variable B. Independent variable C. Population variable D. Individual variable Dependent variable. Reason: Indicates change and its the measurable outcome indicator. Standards of professional performance (SOPP) for dietetics practitioners includes which of the following? A. Professional accountability B. Nutritional intervention C. Nutrition monitoring and evaluation D. Nutrition diagnosis Professional accountability Reason: These standards refer to actions and accountability of the dietetic practitioner. How many dietary folate equivalents (DFE) are provided in a supplement containing 150 mcg of folate? A. 150 DFE B. 225 DFE C. 250 DFE D. 270 DFE 250 DFE Reason: 1 mcg DFE = 0.6 mcg folic acid 150÷(0.6)= 250 DFE. Which of the following individuals are most likely to present with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome? A. A premature infant B. An alcoholic man C. A postmenopausal woman D. A disabled child An alcoholic man Reason: Alcohol abuse leads to severe thiamin deficiency- Also known as WK syndrome. Which of the following is an example of a climacteric fruit? A. Grapefruit B. Melons C. Pineapple D. Tomato Tomato Reason: Climacteric fruit ripens post-harvest. Other examples include: pears, peaches, bananas, apricots, and apples. Oxidative rancidity occurs in foods that have a A. High saturated FA content B. High unsaturated FA content C. High protein content D. High moisture content High unsaturated FA content Reason: Double bonds can undergo cleavage resulting in oxidative rancidity. Primarily occurs with unsaturated FA. The nutritionist employed by the local county wants her nutrition objectives for the next 5-7 years to reflect the goals of Healthy People 2020. Which of her goals listed below most closely reflects the goals of Healthy People 2020? A. Reduce among residents the severity of chronic diseases such as diabetes and heart disease B. Promote, across every stage of life, healthy behaviors that positively affect the nutritional status of residents. C. Improve the nutrition of residents by eliminating disparities in treatment plans D. Eliminate social and physical environments that threaten the nutrition of residents. Promote, across every stage of life, healthy behaviors that positively affect the nutritional status of residents. Reason: Healthy people 2020 advocates for improvement in the health of all people across the life course. The populations that experience the most serious consequences of food borne illnesses are: A. Immunocompromised individuals, due to medical conditions B. Teenagers C. Women of childbearing age D. Both A and C Immunocompromised individuals, due to medical conditions. Freezing is both a simple and successful method of food preservation. To ensure high quality results, it is recommended to keep salt content of prepared foods to a minimum. The reason for this is: A. Freezing intensifies flavor and the food will taste saltier when reheated B. Salt accelerates the rancidity of fats within the food C. Salt increase the risk for microbial growth when foods are thawed. D. Salt accelerates the freezing process and reduces the shelf life of food. Salt accelerates the rancidity of fats with foods. Freezing foods at ______ is the least damaging to the foods original flavor, nutrient content, and texture compared to more other preservation methods A. ≤10*F B. ≤32*F C. ≤0*F D. ≤20*F ≤0*F Reason: Temperatures above this *F, food quality is quickly lost, and flavor and texture is compromised. The chef is preparing to make seasonal changes in the cafeteria menu and wants to make similar changes in the patient menu. How will this change help to control the menu cost? A. It will decrease food cost B. It will decrease labor or production costs C. It will optimize inventory and food usage D. All of the above All of the above: Decrease food cost, decrease labor and production cost, optimize inventory and food usage. Reason: Preparation of similar foods for both patients and cafeterias results in improvements in controlling menu cost. The practices and attitudes that influence an individuals food choices are known as A. Food preferences B. Food habits C. Food satisfaction D. Food connection Food habits Reason: Food habits are the practices and associated attitudes that predetermine what and when a person will eat VS. Food preferences are the foods a person likes to eat. What is the name of the substance that denatures protein in the stomach during digestion? A. Chymotrypsin B. Elastase C. Pepsin D. HCL HCL Reason: Chymotrypsin: pancreatic digestive enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of certain proteins in the small intestine into polypeptides and AA. Elastase: enzyme found in pancreatic juice that catalyzes the the hydrolysis of Elastin. Pepsin: digestive enzyme found in gastric juice that catalyzes the breakdown of proteins to peptides. Which set of directives best describes the management process? A. Controlling, directing, transforming, planning, staffing B. Planning, staffing, establishing objectives, organizing, directing C. Planning, staffing, controlling, establishing objectives, transforming D. Directing, controlling, organizing, staffing, planning Directing, controlling, organizing, staffing, planning. Relationship-building skills include a task referred to as legitimation. Which of the following phases is the best example of a legitimation process? A. "Im looking forward to working together to resolve this concern." B. "Your anger is understandable. Most people would be angry if they experienced what you did." C. "I really admire you for being able to lost weight while maintaining such as hectic work schedule." D. "I don't think I would have been as understanding as you are if I experienced what you have had happen in your life." "Your anger is understandable. Most people would feel angry if they experienced what you did." Reason: Acknowledging the reason behind the behavior, indicates that the response from the client was legitimate. Which of the following has been listed as an essential element in the provision of culturally competent community nutrition programming? A. Standardizing service delivery on the basis of understanding cultural diversity B. Having institutionalized cultural knowledge C. Minimizing the unplanned interactions of people from different cultures D. Having the capacity to avoid self-assessing the cultural diversity of others. Having institutionalized cultural knowledge. Which of the following nutrients is required to be included as a Percent Daily Value on food labels? A. Vitamin A B. Potassium C. Vitamin D D. Iodine Vitamin A The primary substance required for the structure of gels in jams and jellies is A. Acid B. Sugar C. Pectin D. Water Pectin Data reviewed for nutrition assessment are also reviewed during the following step: A. Monitoring and evaluation B. Nutrition diagnosis C. Goal setting D. all of the above All of the above: Monitoring and evaluation, nutrition diagnosis, goal setting. When reviewing 2 years of serial data on a CDC growth chart, a pediatric patient is identified to be at risk on nutritional screening when experiencing a A. Change in rate of growth B. Continuation on his or her line of growth C. Growth spurt D. Plateau in growth Change in growth rate Reason: Look for change in rate of growth pattern overtime to determine potential risk; expect growth spurts and plateaus. The USDA School Meals Initiative for Healthy Children requires that the schools participating in the National School Breakfast Program provides____ RDA for age/grade group for breakfast. A. 1/2 B. 1/3 C. 1/4 D. 1/5 1/4. Reason: the school lunch program must provide 1/3 of the RDA while the breakfast program requires a 1/4 of the RDA. A teen with diabetes snacks on 40-45 grapes each afternoon. The RD teaching him about carb counting could explain that his snack is equal to how many carb servings? A. 1 B. 2 C.3 D.4 3. Reason: 15 grapes= 1 carb serving. Inventory turnover rate for 4 establishments are as follows: A: 2; B: 4; C: 6; D: 3. Which of these following are most likely to use the just in time purchasing system? C. Reason: Just in time purchasing relies on minimum inventory and will therefore have a higher inventory turnover rate. The higher the inventory turnover rate, the less product held in storage. Which of the following is an application of nanotechnology in the foodservice industry? A. A computer software that manages inventory via the tracking of sales B. Foodservice storage containers that are permeable to gases that contribute to spoilage C. A frying oil that catalytically inhibits the thermal polymerization of the oil. D. Increasing the concentration of Vitamin D in low fat dairy products to increase the potential for absorption. A frying oil that catalytically inhibits the thermal polymerization of the oil. Reason: catalytic device that conditions frying oil through the use of nanotechnology. When practicing as a foodservice buyer, which practice would be the most acceptable? A. Servings as the legal agent for the organization B. Sharing quotes between bidders in order to get the lowest price possible C. Attending vendor-sponsored parties D. Giving one supplier confidential information from another supplier. Serving as the legal agent for the organization. When reheating previously cooked foods, what temperature should they reach within 2 hours? A. 135*F for 15 seconds B. 145*F for 15 seconds C. 155* F for 15 seconds D. 165*F for 15 seconds 165*F for 15 seconds Reason: Reheating of foods should reach the highest temperature listed, which is 165*F. During the menu planning process, the first component of the menu that one should address is the choice of _____ to be offered. A. Side dishes B. Breakfast items C. Desserts D. Entrees Entrees. How should foods that do not hold well for long periods of time, such as broccoli, be prepared? A. Batch cooking B. Cook chill C. Combi-oven D. Steamed Batch cooking Reason: Foods that do not hold well should be prepared as close to service as possible. Batch cooking means cooking foods as needed for service. During a review of customer feedback cards, Jill Simmons, RDN, noted a pattern of dissatisfaction with the consistency of the quality of the beef stew. She also noted a correlation to production data that reported running short of the beef stew during service. The most likely cause for these two problems would be: A. The servers were not using the appropriate size dishes when plating the stew B. The cooks are not using the standardized recipe C. The quality of the beef used in the stew is not consistent of the specifications D. Beef stew is a very popular item on the menu. The cooks are not using standardized recipes. Of the following, which is the type of skill that must develop within and be nurtured in both the personal and professional life of a manager? A. Hard B. Soft C. Networking D. Communication Soft skills. Reason: Hard skills can be taught; soft skills can be developed and nurtured within our personal and professional lives. Compared to a non-leader, which grouping of words best describes a leader? A. Copes with complexities, seeks to be understood, empowers B. Organizes, motivates, copes with complexities C. Seeks to be understood, perseveres, copes with change D. Copes with change, empowers, perseveres. Copes with change, empowers, perseveres. Excessive intakes of phytates and oxalates can interfere with the absorption of A. Cholesterol B. Minerals C. Vitamins D. Fiber Minerals. Reason: phytates in in grain fiber can limit absorption of some minerals by binding. Oxalates (oxalic acid) can depress the absorption of certain minerals. Canned corn has more sodium and less potassium than fresh corn. This is a result of A. Processing B. Enrichment C. Fortification D. Disassociation Processing When preparing most vegetables for freezing, it is imperative that you blanch the vegetable first. The primary purpose of this process is to ____ and improve product ____. A. Kill harmful microorganisms, safety B. Deactivate enzymes, safety C. Deactivate enzymes, quality D. Improve texture, palatibility -deactivate enzymes -Quality Reason: Blanching slows/stops the enzyme action. After maturation, enzymes cause loss of quality, flavor, color, texture, and nutrients. Building an appropriate protein matrix is essential for achieving the proper quality features in baked goods. Increasing the amount of sugar in a recipe will have which of the following effects on gluten development and the mixing process? A. Added sugar will speed gluten development and require more manipulation B. Added sugar will slow gluten development and require more manipulation C. Added sugar will speed gluten development and require less manipulation D. Added sugar will slow gluten development and require less manipulation. Added sugar will slow gluten development and require more manipulation. Reason: Sugar competes with starch for the water in the dough or batter. Achieving the appropriate aw level in dehydrated foods is crucial to ensure food safety and adequate shelf life. Most microorganisms grow well at aw level of A. 0.65-0.70 B. 0.91-0.99 C. 0.75-0.80 D. 0.25-0.35 0.91 to 0.99 Reason: AW (water activity) level-limits the growth of the majority of pathogenic bacteria- is 0.70 aw to 0.90 aw. The lower limit for all organisms is 0.60 aw. The safety and quality of meat and poultry imported to the US are overseen by the A. FDA B. FSIS (Food Safety and Inspection Service) C. USCO (US Customs Office D. USDC (US Department of Commerce) FSIS (Food Safety and Inspections Service). Which of the following would be considered an antecedent in the ABC framework used by behavioral scientists? A. Eating an extra large container of popcorn at the movies B. Enjoying the company of others while eating out C. Sampling most of the items at a restaurant that serves buffet style D. Watching a TV commercial advertising burgers Watching a TV commercial advertising burgers. Reason: Antecedent is events or environments that trigger a specific behavior or response. Which of the following must be served in combo with a meat/meat alternate in order to meet the full meat/meat alternate requirement for a reimbursable school lunch? A. Nut butter B. Tofu C. Legumes D. Nuts Nuts Reason: nuts must be combined and only used for half of the meat/meat alternate requirement. Bacterial spoilage is most likely to occur in which water activity? A. 0.9 B. 0.7 C. 0.5 D. 0.3 0.9 Reason: Water activity increases with water. The higher the water activity, the most likely the food is to spoil. The first step in conducting a community needs assessment is to: A. Describe the problem and state why a needs assessment is necessary B. Specify the data needed and design a plan for acquiring it C. Determine the purpose, goals, and objectives of the needs assessment D. Identify the target population and nutrition problem of concern Identify the target population and nutrition problem of concern. Currently, which of the following nutrients is determined to be the most deficient among children and adolescents in the US? A. Calcium B. Fiber C. Vitamin A D. Iron Iron To keep the menu interesting to students, The Parkway Foodservice menu items are rotated on a monthly basis. This type of menu is classified as: A. Static menu B. Single use C. School lunch program menu D. Cycle menu Cycle menu What drives kitchen layout, staffing, and inventory? A. Food cost B. Menu C. Union contract D. Management style Menu Which of the following can reduce overproduction? A. Accurate forecasting B. Small-batch cooking C. Freezing prepared items D. All of the above All of the above: Accurate forecasting, Small-batch cooking, Freezing prepared items. What gauge of stainless steel is most common in foodservice operations? A. 14 B. 16 C. 18 D. All of the above All of the above: 14, 16, 18 Reason: The lower the gauge number, the thicker the metal is. The thicker the metal, the less likely it is to dent than other gauges (such as 20 and 22). A menu style that has all components of a meal priced individually is known as A. Prix fixe B. Table d^hote C. A la carte D. Family style a la carte Reason: Table d`hote and prix fixe menu is a complete meal at a fixed price. The evaluation tool that is used for effective planning and controls functions of management is called: A. PERT chart B. MIS processing C. HACCP D. Strategic planning PERT chart Reason: MIS processing and HACCP are not associated with functions of management. Strategic planning is a management process of determining long term goals and the best approach to accomplishing them. The one part of the brain that is critical to regulating hunger and satiety is A. Cerebral cortex B. Cerebellum C. Hypothalamus D. Medulla Hypothalamus Which of the following gastrointestinal hormones has the effect of increasing appetite? A. Cholecystokinin B. Ghrelin C. Enterostatin D. Peripheral Hormone Peptide YY (PHP YY) Ghrelin Reason: Ghrelin is produced by the epithelial cells lining the fundus of the stomach. Two fats that are high in saturated fat and solid at room temperature include A. Coconut oil and Safflower oil B. Corn oil and palm kernel oil C. Soybean oil and palm oil D. Coconut oil and palm kernel oil Coconut oil and palm kernel oil. Reason: Coconut oil is 91% saturated fat; Palm oil is 51% saturated fat; soybean oil is 15% saturated fat; corn oil is 13% saturated fat; safflower oil is 10% saturated fat. Which of the following oils is an adequate source of Medium-Chain Triglycerides (MCT)? A. Corn oil B. Coconut oil C. Safflower oil D. Soybean oil Coconut oil. Reason: Rich sources of MCT are coconut oil and palm kernel oil. The pathway of glucose to pyruvate during anaerobic conditions results in A. Acetyl CoA B. Carbon Dioxide C. Fatty acids D. Lactic acids Lactic acid. Reason: Aerobic conditions: Pyruvate → Acetyl Coa; Anaerobic conditions: Pyruvate → lactate Breastfed infants of mothers who consumed a vegan diet while pregnant would benefit from supplementation of what micronutrient? A. Niacin B. Calcium C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin A B12. Reason: Deficiency of B12 can cause irreversible nervous system damage. When pickling foods, the level of brine acidity is critical not only for acceptable flavor and texture, but also for safety of the product. The appropriate acidity level of the vinegar used must be at least A. 3% B. 5% C. 10% D. 15% 5% White distilled and cider vinegars of 5% acidity are recommended for pickling. A research article describes the risk of developing obesity among African American youth in County A over 5 years. This is an example of what rate? A. Incidence B. Prevalence C. Epidemiology D. Hazard Incidence. Reason: Incidence describes the rate of development a disease over a specific period of time. Which set of dietary intake values establishes a goal for dietary intake that will meet the needs of nearly all healthy people? A. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) B. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) C. Adequate Intake (AI) D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level RDA. Reason: The EAR is the intake that meets the needs of half of the individuals in a specific group. AI is an estimate of the average requirements when evidence is not available to establish the RDA. The TCA cycle begins with the conversion of Pyruvate to A. Acetyl CoA B. Oxaloacetate C. ATP D. Hydrogen ions Acetyl CoA. Reason: TCA is also known as the Krebs cycle. When cooking poultry, it should reach an internal temperature of: A. 135*F for 15 seconds B. 145*F for 15 seconds C. 165*F for 15 seconds D. 165*F for 20 seconds 165*F for 15 seconds Fruits and vegetables that have not been blanched prior to freezing are more susceptible to which kind of deterioration? A. Fermentation B. Browning C. Biological spoilage D. Freezer burn Browning. What is the primary regulatory agency responsible for the safety of imported fish? A. EPA B. FDA C. USDA D. USDIC (US Department of International Commerce) FDA. Which of the following foods should a pregnant woman avoid? A. King mackerel B. Tuna C. Trout D. Shrimp King mackerel. Reason: King mackerel has a high mercury content. In the NCP, where should dietetics professionals note the clients BMI? A. Food/Nutrition Related history B. Biochemical data, medical tests and procedures C. Anthropometric measurements D. Nutrition-focused physical exams Anthropometric measurements A restaurant that serves food on platters for everyone to share and pass around the table, has what kind of service style? A. Self-serve B. French style C. Family style D. American style Family style. Reason: American style: food is plated in the kitchen and then placed in front of the customer. French style: food is prepared at the table. Meals that are assembled in one location and transported to another location in the facility define which type of foodservice systems? A. Decentralized meal assembly B. Centralized meal assembly C. Ready-prepared meal production D. Tray service Centralized meal assembly. Reason: Decentralized meal assembly: menu items are produced in one location and then transported to others for assembly closer to the customers. Which of the following is the evaluation tool used for effective planning and that controls functions of management? A. PERT chart B. MIS processing C. HACCP D. Strategic planning PERT chart. A manager always defers to her workers to reach an agreement among themselves, then she adopts the majority decision. Her leadership style is: A. Democratic B. Autocratic C. Consensus D. Participative Democratic. What characteristic is KEY to an efficient and effective system? A. Continuous response and adaptation to the system B. Flow of resources C. Interdependency of parts D. Achievement of subunit objectives Interdependency of parts. Which of following does not provide a significant source of vitamin D A. Egg yolk B. Kale C. Sardines D. Fortified milk kale. Which might be added to some beverages as a natural stimulant? A. Vanillin B. Caramel C. Sodium benzoate D. Caffeine Caffeine Which of the following fats/oils have the highest smoke point, making it ideal for high heat cooking? A. Peanut oil B. Olive oil C. Shortening D. Safflower oil Safflower oil. Reason: smoke points in order of highest to lowest: Safflower; peanut; olive oil; shortening. When added to gelatin, fruit containing which of the following substances will keep the gelatin from forming a gel? A. Sucralose B. Papain C. Pectin D. Sorbitol Papain. Proteolytic enzyme found in papaya; halts gelatins ability to form a gel. Which of the following statements is true regarding the potential benefits of dietary fiber? A. Lowers LDL cholesterol levels B. Reduces postprandial BG levels C. Increases gastric emptying D. Both A and B Both A and B Rickets is a result of which vitamin deficiency? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K Vitamin D. Which of the following foods would you expect to empty from the stomach most quickly? A. French Fries B. Oatmeal C. Orange Juice D. Scrambled eggs fruit juice. According to the CDC and Preventions worst-case projections, what proportion of the US adult population will have diabetes by year 2050? A. 15% B. 20% C. 30% D. 50% 30% According to the USDA, what is the penalty for falsely labeling a product as organic? A. A civil fine of up to $11,000 B. Imprisonment C. Confiscation of assets D. Confiscation of product A civil fine of up to $11,000 Which USDA grades of beef are missing from this list: prime, canner, select, choice, utility, and commercial A. Standard, Acceptable B. Good, Cutter C. Acceptable, Good D. Cutter, Standard Cutter, standard. Reason: grades of beef from highest to lowest: prime, choice, select, standard, commercial, utility, cutter, canner. When a client is knowledgeable about a hyperlipidemia diet and is able to devise healthy meal plans, but has moderate readiness in independently following the Nutrition care plan. To be most effective in meeting the clients needs, what would be the RDN`s approach? A. Continue to provide dietary instructions to the client and closely monitor compliance B. Help the client gain confidence through listening, advising, and coaching C. Listen to the client. Encourage and support the skills the client has developed. D. Turn over the responsibility for nutrition care to the client. Listen to the client. Encourage and support the skills the client has developed. What daily energy intake should result in a weight loss of 2 lbs per month if one had been consuming 2,000 kcal? A. 1500 kcal B. 1650 kcal C. 1750 kcal D. 1850 kcal 1750 kcal Reason: 3500 kcal/pound = 7,000 kcal deficiency needed for 2 lbs weight loss over 4 weeks; 7,000÷28 (28=4 weeks × 7 days/week) = 250 kcal. 2000-250 = 1750 kcal. Which of the following is the best example of an open-ended question? A. Why would you want to follow that meal plan? B. Do you use skim milk or whole milk? C. What are some of the challenges faced in your weight loss journey? D. Do you feel positive or negative about your weight loss goal? What are some challenges that you've faced on your weight loss journey? A client comes in unsure on what fruits to eat on his diabetic meal plan. Which of the following is the best example of a reflective statement/question to ask? A. You're uncertain about how to choose foods? B. You're interested in your health? C. Do you want a diabetic meal plan? D. Im happy you've come in today. You're uncertain on how to choose foods? According to the CDC growth chart, in what percentile is a 1 year old boy measuring 82 cm (32 in)? A. 5% B. 25% C. 75% D. 95% 95% After defining the nutrition problem, which of the following is the correct sequence of steps a community nutritionist should follow in assessing the needs of the community? A. Set the parameters of the assessment, collect data, analyze and interpret the data, share the findings, and set the priorities. B. Set priorities, collect data, set the parameters of the assessment, analyze and interpret the data, share the findings. C. Choose a plan of action, collect the data, set the parameters of the assessment, share the findings, analyze and interpret the data D. Collect the data, analyze and interpret the data, set the parameters, share the findings, and set the priorities. Set the parameters of the assessment, collect data, analyze and interpret the data, share the findings, and set priorities. Which type of eggs should be served to patients in a nursing home? A. Freshly cracked and sunny up B. Over easy C. Pasteurized scrambled eggs D. Pool cracked scrambled eggs Pasteurized scrambled eggs. Reason: due to the immunocompromised systems of elderly, they require pasteurized and well cooked food to prevent the risk of food borne illness. Refeeding syndrome is characterized by low serum concentrations of A. Phosphorus, Potassium, Magnesium B. Sodium, phosphorus, Magnesium C. Sodium, Potassium, Phosphorus D. Potassium, Magnesium, Sodium Phosphorus, Potassium, Magnesium. Reason: Refeeding syndrome occurs when previously malnourished patients are fed with high carbohydrate loads; results in the rapid fall of phosphate, magnesium, potassium, and increase in Extracellular fluid volume. This results in complications such as arrhythmia and seizures. Which term best describes the detailed arrangement of kitchen equipment, floor, and counter space? A. Design B. Layout C. Product flow D. Traffic flow Layout. Which of the following is least likely to be documented? A. Work related advice provided by the supervisor to the employee B. Employee appearance C. Employee availability D. Employee conduct Work-related advice provided by the supervisor to the employee. Which of the following phrases is the best example of how dietetics practitioners should reiterate to the client information about his/her dietary intake of calcium? A. The amount of calcium you eat is low B. Your dietary intake of calcium increases your risk of developing osteoporosis C. You eat one serving of calcium rich food each day and the experts tell us to eat 3 D. People who eat one serving of calcium rich foods each day are at an increased risk of osteoporosis. People who eat one serving of a calcium rich food each day are at an increase risk of osteoporosis. The dietetics professional has developed a weight loss program that includes encouraging participants to reward themselves with treats such as new clothes, going to a movie, or spending more time in a favorite pastime after they have lost 5 lbs. The learning behavior theory being applied is: A. Behavioral B. Social learning C. Cognitive D. Humanism Behavioral. Which of the following verbs is the best choice when writing a performance objective? A. Know B. Appreciate C. Recommend D. Understand Recommend. Reason: Performance must be measurable; Recommend is the only verb that is qualitatively measurable. Which vitamin enhances iron absorption? Vitamin C. To honor client autonomy in motivational interviewing, the food and nutrition professional.... A. Identified which foods the client should consume in smaller quantities B. Encourages the client choose which foods to eat C. Gives the client sage advice regarding dietary changes D. Accepts responsibility for the clients success or failure in following the recommended diet Encourages the client to choose which foods to eat. Which of the following is not a sugar alcohol? A. Sorbitol B. Xylitol C. Mannitol D. Glycogen Glycogen. Which FA are essential and must be obtained by eating foods containing these FA? A. Linoleic and alpha linolenic FA B. Cis monounsaturated FA C. Trans FA D. Saturated FA Linoleic and alpha-Linolenic FA. Which of the following would be an appropriate response for the nutrition professional using reflective listening to provide to a client who states: I don't have time to prepare healthy meals at home? A. There must be many demands on your time at home B. There are many time saving shortcuts that i can share with you to help ease the time crunch C. Everyone is busy, but preparing healthy meals should be a priority for you D. That is true for me too, that is why it is important to try "There must be many demands on your time at home." Reason: Reflective listening allows the practitioner to test a hypothesis of what has been heard and involves making statements to confirm understanding of the clients meaning. Giving advice is not appropriate in reflective listening. How much water needs to be removed from vegetables if dehydration is used as a method of food preservation? A. ≥80% B. ≥85% C. ≥90% D. ≥95% ≥95%. Dehydrated veggies have 95% of their water removed; Dehydrated fruits have 80% of their water removed. Which of the following food additives does NOT have generally recognized as safe (GRAS) status? A. Sodium chloride B. Plant Sterols C. Allspice D. Sucralose Sucralose. A patient with acute renal failure will have an increased need of _____ compared with a person with optimal renal failure? A. Protein B. Potassium C. Fluid D. Energy Energy. Reason: Energy expenditure increases as renal function decreases. Which of the following foods is not a common pediatric foods allergen? A. Cow`s milk B. Rice C. Wheat D. Peanuts Rice. Reason: Rice is commonly the first grain introduced to infants. Which classic vitamin deficiency is known for the 4 D`s: dermatitis; dementia; diarrhea; death. A. Thiamin B. Niacin C. Biotin D. Folic Acid Niacin. Reason: These symptoms are of Pellagra disease- caused by niacin deficiency. Children on strict vegan diets may be deficient in: A. Vitamin B6 B. Magnesium C. Vitamin B12 D. Iron b12 Prior to freezing, vegetables must be _____ before freezing to stop the damaging actions of enzymes. A. Washed B. Peeled C. Blanched D. Dried Blanched. Commercial and onsite food service operations share many similarities in their subsystems. Some characteristics are unique to a type of operation. A commercial buffet restaurant and a school nutrition program are distinguished by: A. How food is distributed and served B. How food is procured C. How sanitation is maintained D. How food is produced How food is distributed and served. Which of the following helps maintain indoor air quality by removing grease, steam, smoke and heat from a foodservice operation? A. A properly installed sewage system B. A properly installed plumbing system C. A proper ventilation system D. A cross-connection A proper ventilation system. Which statement best describes the "D" component of the PDSA performance improvement model? A. Determine how changes will be implemented B. Implement the intervention C. Determine the impact of the intervention D. Maintain and continue improvement. Implement the intervention. ______ Should be up to date and reinforced with strong supervision. A. Personnel policies B. Employee evaluations C. Schedules D. Employee morale Personnel policies. ______ What is an acronym for essential AA, name them: HILL MVP Try Thre: Histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine methionine, valine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan. Which of the following is an essential AA? A. Alanine B. Histidine C. Proline D. Tyrosine Histidine Reason: HILL MVPTT Approximately how many servings of milk would a woman of 53 years of age need to consume to meet her RDA for calcium? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 4 cups. Reason: RDA for women aged 51+ is 1200 mg of calcium/day. Milk has 300 mg calcium/cup- therefore 3 cups would be required. Which of the following is often added to fat-free chocolate milk as a stabilizer and thickener to improve mouthfeel? A. Methylparaben B. Lecithin C. Carrageenan D. Calcium Silicate Carrageenan. Reason: Prevents the large dense molecules of chocolate from sedimenting in fat-free chocolate milk. Which additive used in smoked and cured meats forms a color pigment that may oxidize to an undesirable yellow or greenish color when exposed to oxygen or light? A. Sodium Hydroxide B. Propyl Gallate C. Potassium Alginate D. Sodium Nitrate Sodium nitrate. Which of the following is an example of the hawthorne effect? A. "Chloe has always thought that she caught fewer colds when she remembered to take her zinc supplements, so she is pleased to be in a study now to determine the impact of zinc supplements on ones susceptibility to colds. She is sure that the supplement she is taking is helping her avoid catching colds." B. "Pat, a researcher for a number of clinical trials, has reviewed preliminary results from a study of the effects of caffeine on sleeplessness. The data indicate that the findings may be inconclusive so Pat has asked that the interview questions be revised to make it possible to identify what may be more subtle effects of caffeine. C. "Emma is participating in a study of the impact of artificially sweetened cold drinks on appetite. She believes that she is in the control group so she plans to report that the beverage she drinks does not affect her appetite." D. "Because Raul is in a study to determine the impact of eating breakfast on one`s ability to achieve faster times in track and field events that include "sprinting" periods, he is skipping his breakfast less often." "Because Raul is in a study determining the impact of eating breakfast on ones ability to achieve faster times in track and field events that include sprinting periods, he is skipping breakfast more often. Reason: Hawthorne effect refers to the tendency of some people to work harder or perform better when they are participants in an experiment or program. Table salt is fortified with this nutritive additive to prevent goiter. A. Ascorbic Acid B. Calcium Lactate C. Potassium Citrate D. Potassium Iodide Potassium iodide. Which of these require compliance with safety standards? A. MSDS B. OSHA C. HACCP D. None of the above OSHA. Reason: requires employers to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard-Requires employers to train employees on the safe use of chemicals. Which set of nutrients and/or food components are associated with the formation of cataracts in older adults? A. Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Carotenoids B. Thiamin, Riboflavin, Niacin C. Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Phytosterols D. Calcium, Zinc, Magnesium Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Carotenoids. Reason: Carotenoids are high oxidants and oxidative stress. Which of the following two components of the NCP are performed in one step? A. Assessment and Intervention B. Monitoring and Diagnosis C. Monitoring and Evaluation D. Diagnosis and Intervention Monitoring and Evaluation. As the time span and/or distance between the finishing point of food production and service to the customer increases, the needs and costs associated with distribution systems and equipment for successful service to the customer: A. Decreases B. Stays the same C. Increases D. Fluctuates Increases. What should be done to avoid carryover cooking? Removing the food from the heat source prior to it reaching its goal temperature. Cooking occurs even after the food is removed from its heat source. Which of the following viruses is the most common cause of sporadic cases and outbreaks of food borne illness? A. Hep A B. Hep B C. Rotovirus D. Norovirus Norovirus. Which ratio is designed to examine how effectively an organization is utilizing its assets? A. Assets to Liabilities B. Debt to Equity C. Inventory Turnover D. Break-even point Inventory turnover. Reason: The assets-to-liabilities ratio calculates the percentage of assets provided by debt. The debt to equity ratio calculates the percentage of the company`s assets are funded by shareholders equity and debt. The breakeven point is where expenses and revenue are equal. Which statement best describes the "A" component of the FADE performance improve