NR 406B Exam 1: Pharmacology II V3
Updated and Latest Questions and
Correct Answers - Regis University
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which assessment finding
should the nurse prioritize as a common side effect of this medication?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Hypokalemia
D. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: NR 406B focuses on the complex application of pharmacology in the nursing
process. This exam encompasses critical drug classes like cardiovascular and endocrine
agents. Understanding mechanism of action is vital for predicting side effects. Safe
medication administration requires knowledge of therapeutic ranges and antidotes. ACE
inhibitors are a primary focus due to their impact on the R-A-A system. Students must
differentiate between various types of insulin based on kinetic profiles. Electrolyte
imbalances often dictate the choice of diuretic therapy in heart failure. Antibiotic
stewardship is reinforced through learning specific toxicity markers. Psychotropic
medications require long-term monitoring for metabolic and neurologic changes. This test
prep ensures students can synthesize pharmacological data for patient safety.
2. A nurse is monitoring a patient taking Digoxin. Which laboratory value
increases the risk for digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Hypokalemia sensitizes the myocardium to digoxin, significantly increasing
the risk of toxicity, even when digoxin levels are within the therapeutic range.
,3. Which education should the nurse provide to a patient newly prescribed
Furosemide?
A. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
C. Take the medication at bedtime.
D. Expect a decrease in urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause orthostatic hypotension;
patients should be taught to move slowly to prevent falls.
4. A patient with heart failure is taking Spironolactone. Which food choice
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. Bananas
B. Apples
C. White bread
D. Chicken breast
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Bananas are high in
potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia when combined with this drug.
5. What is the therapeutic INR range for a patient taking Warfarin for atrial
fibrillation?
A. 0.5 to 1.5
B. 2.0 to 3.0
C. 4.0 to 5.0
D. 10.0 to 12.0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: For most indications like atrial fibrillation or DVT, the target therapeutic INR
is between 2.0 and 3.0.
, 6. Which medication is the antidote for Heparin overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Protamine sulfate is the specific antagonist used to reverse the anticoagulant
effects of heparin.
7. When administering Enoxaparin subcutaneously, the nurse should:
A. Aspirate for blood return.
B. Massage the injection site.
C. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe.
D. Administer in the abdomen, 2 inches from the umbilicus.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Enoxaparin should be injected into the abdominal wall, at least 2 inches away
from the umbilicus; the air bubble should not be expelled.
8. A patient is prescribed sublingual Nitroglycerin for angina. What is the correct
administration protocol?
A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes up to 3 doses.
B. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.
C. Take one tablet every 5 minutes up to 3 doses.
D. Take only when pain is severe (8/10).
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The standard protocol for acute angina is one sublingual tablet every 5
minutes for a maximum of 3 doses; call 911 if pain persists after the first dose.
Updated and Latest Questions and
Correct Answers - Regis University
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which assessment finding
should the nurse prioritize as a common side effect of this medication?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Hypokalemia
D. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: NR 406B focuses on the complex application of pharmacology in the nursing
process. This exam encompasses critical drug classes like cardiovascular and endocrine
agents. Understanding mechanism of action is vital for predicting side effects. Safe
medication administration requires knowledge of therapeutic ranges and antidotes. ACE
inhibitors are a primary focus due to their impact on the R-A-A system. Students must
differentiate between various types of insulin based on kinetic profiles. Electrolyte
imbalances often dictate the choice of diuretic therapy in heart failure. Antibiotic
stewardship is reinforced through learning specific toxicity markers. Psychotropic
medications require long-term monitoring for metabolic and neurologic changes. This test
prep ensures students can synthesize pharmacological data for patient safety.
2. A nurse is monitoring a patient taking Digoxin. Which laboratory value
increases the risk for digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Hypokalemia sensitizes the myocardium to digoxin, significantly increasing
the risk of toxicity, even when digoxin levels are within the therapeutic range.
,3. Which education should the nurse provide to a patient newly prescribed
Furosemide?
A. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
C. Take the medication at bedtime.
D. Expect a decrease in urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause orthostatic hypotension;
patients should be taught to move slowly to prevent falls.
4. A patient with heart failure is taking Spironolactone. Which food choice
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. Bananas
B. Apples
C. White bread
D. Chicken breast
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Bananas are high in
potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia when combined with this drug.
5. What is the therapeutic INR range for a patient taking Warfarin for atrial
fibrillation?
A. 0.5 to 1.5
B. 2.0 to 3.0
C. 4.0 to 5.0
D. 10.0 to 12.0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: For most indications like atrial fibrillation or DVT, the target therapeutic INR
is between 2.0 and 3.0.
, 6. Which medication is the antidote for Heparin overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Protamine sulfate is the specific antagonist used to reverse the anticoagulant
effects of heparin.
7. When administering Enoxaparin subcutaneously, the nurse should:
A. Aspirate for blood return.
B. Massage the injection site.
C. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe.
D. Administer in the abdomen, 2 inches from the umbilicus.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Enoxaparin should be injected into the abdominal wall, at least 2 inches away
from the umbilicus; the air bubble should not be expelled.
8. A patient is prescribed sublingual Nitroglycerin for angina. What is the correct
administration protocol?
A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes up to 3 doses.
B. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.
C. Take one tablet every 5 minutes up to 3 doses.
D. Take only when pain is severe (8/10).
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The standard protocol for acute angina is one sublingual tablet every 5
minutes for a maximum of 3 doses; call 911 if pain persists after the first dose.
