NR 406B Exam 3: Pharmacology II V4
Updated and Latest Questions and
Correct Answers - Regis University
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which mechanism of
action correctly describes this medication?
A. Inhibiting the influx of calcium into cardiac cells
B. Directly blocking Angiotensin II receptors
C. Blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
D. Promoting the excretion of sodium and water in the distal tubule
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that prevents the conversion of Angiotensin I to
Angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor.
2. Which assessment finding is most indicative of Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hyperkalemia and tachycardia
B. Visual disturbances such as yellow-green halos
C. Increased appetite and hypertension
D. Dry cough and peripheral edema
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Classic signs of digoxin toxicity include visual changes like yellow or green
halos, nausea, vomiting, and bradycardia.
,3. A nurse is monitoring a patient on Warfarin therapy. Which lab value is
essential to monitor for therapeutic dosing?
A. PT/INR
B. Platelet count
C. aPTT
D. Serum creatinine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Warfarin therapy is monitored using the Prothrombin Time (PT) and
International Normalized Ratio (INR).
4. What is the specific antidote for a patient experiencing a Heparin overdose?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Flumazenil
D. Acetylcysteine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Protamine sulfate is the pharmacological antagonist used to reverse the
effects of heparin.
5. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which
beta-blocker should the nurse clarify with the provider?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Bisoprolol
D. Propranolol
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause
bronchoconstriction, making it risky for patients with asthma.
, 6. A nurse is teaching a patient about Amlodipine. Which side effect should be
included in the teaching?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Gingival hyperplasia
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Calcium channel blockers, including amlodipine, can cause gingival
hyperplasia and peripheral edema.
7. How should a patient be instructed to take sublingual Nitroglycerin for chest
pain?
A. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water
B. Take the medication only after the pain has lasted for 20 minutes
C. Place the tablet under the tongue and wait 5 minutes before a second dose
D. Crush the medication and mix it with applesauce
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sublingual nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue; if pain persists
after 5 minutes, a second dose is taken and EMS called.
8. A patient taking Furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant loss of potassium
through the urine.
Updated and Latest Questions and
Correct Answers - Regis University
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which mechanism of
action correctly describes this medication?
A. Inhibiting the influx of calcium into cardiac cells
B. Directly blocking Angiotensin II receptors
C. Blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
D. Promoting the excretion of sodium and water in the distal tubule
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that prevents the conversion of Angiotensin I to
Angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor.
2. Which assessment finding is most indicative of Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hyperkalemia and tachycardia
B. Visual disturbances such as yellow-green halos
C. Increased appetite and hypertension
D. Dry cough and peripheral edema
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Classic signs of digoxin toxicity include visual changes like yellow or green
halos, nausea, vomiting, and bradycardia.
,3. A nurse is monitoring a patient on Warfarin therapy. Which lab value is
essential to monitor for therapeutic dosing?
A. PT/INR
B. Platelet count
C. aPTT
D. Serum creatinine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Warfarin therapy is monitored using the Prothrombin Time (PT) and
International Normalized Ratio (INR).
4. What is the specific antidote for a patient experiencing a Heparin overdose?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Flumazenil
D. Acetylcysteine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Protamine sulfate is the pharmacological antagonist used to reverse the
effects of heparin.
5. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which
beta-blocker should the nurse clarify with the provider?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Bisoprolol
D. Propranolol
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause
bronchoconstriction, making it risky for patients with asthma.
, 6. A nurse is teaching a patient about Amlodipine. Which side effect should be
included in the teaching?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Gingival hyperplasia
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Calcium channel blockers, including amlodipine, can cause gingival
hyperplasia and peripheral edema.
7. How should a patient be instructed to take sublingual Nitroglycerin for chest
pain?
A. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water
B. Take the medication only after the pain has lasted for 20 minutes
C. Place the tablet under the tongue and wait 5 minutes before a second dose
D. Crush the medication and mix it with applesauce
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sublingual nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue; if pain persists
after 5 minutes, a second dose is taken and EMS called.
8. A patient taking Furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant loss of potassium
through the urine.
