2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
NUR 634 Advanced Health Assessment Midterm Master Bank 2025/2026 Q&A | Cardiac,
Respiratory, Neurological & Abdominal Exam
Master the 2025/2026 NUR 634 Midterm with this ultimate exam bank featuring over high-yield
practice questions and verified rationales. This comprehensive study guide covers advanced diagnostic
reasoning, physical examination techniques across the lifespan, and critical differential diagnoses for
cardiac, respiratory, and neurological systems. Designed specifically for graduate nursing students,
these materials ensure you are fully prepared to excel in your Advanced Health Assessment course
and clinical rotations.
1. A patient presents with a chief complaint of "crushing" chest pain. Which of the
following is considered "subjective" data?
A. Blood pressure of 160/94 mmHg
B. Patient stating the pain radiates to the left jaw
C. EKG showing ST-segment elevation
D. Diaphoretic skin noted on physical exam
Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data is what the patient experiences and reports (History), while
objective data is what the clinician observes or measures (Physical Exam/Labs).
2. During a cardiac assessment, the Nurse Practitioner (NP) notes a low-pitched sound
heard best with the bell at the apex during early diastole. This is most likely:
A. S4 (Atrial Gallop)
B. S3 (Ventricular Gallop)
C. Mitral Stenosis murmur
D. Pericardial Friction Rub
Answer: B
Rationale: S3 occurs during the rapid ventricular filling phase of diastole. It is often a sign of
fluid overload or heart failure in adults over age 40.
3. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the movement of the tongue?
A. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN XI (Spinal Accessory)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Answer: D
Rationale: Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal) is a purely motor nerve that controls the extrinsic
and intrinsic muscles of the tongue.
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
4. A positive Murphy’s sign is most indicative of which condition?
A. Acute Appendicitis
B. Acute Cholecystitis
C. Splenomegaly
D. Nephrolithiasis
Answer: B
Rationale: Murphy’s sign is elicited by palpating the RUQ while the patient inhales; a sudden
halt in inspiration due to pain suggests gallbladder inflammation.
5. When percussing the lungs of a patient with a large pneumothorax, the NP expects to
hear:
A. Resonance
B. Dullness
C. Hyperresonance
D. Flatness
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperresonance occurs when there is an over-abundance of air in the chest cavity,
such as in pneumothorax or advanced emphysema.
6. A 24-year-old female presents with a "scaly, herald patch" on her back, followed by a
Christmas tree-like distribution of smaller lesions. What is the diagnosis?
A. Tinea Corporis
B. Pityriasis Rosea
C. Psoriasis
D. Eczema
Answer: B
Rationale: Pityriasis Rosea typically begins with a single herald patch and follows the skin's
cleavage lines in a Christmas tree pattern.
7. Which test is used to assess for a meniscus tear in the knee?
A. Lachman Test
B. McMurray Test
C. Phalen’s Test
D. Drawer Test
Answer: B
Rationale: The McMurray test involves rotating the knee with the patient supine; a "click" or
pain indicates a meniscus injury. Lachman and Drawer tests assess the ACL.
8. A geriatric patient reports a gradual loss of peripheral vision, described as "tunnel
vision." This is a hallmark of:
A. Macular Degeneration
B. Cataracts
C. Glaucoma
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
D. Retinal Detachment
Answer: C
Rationale: Glaucoma typically presents with increased intraocular pressure leading to
peripheral field loss. Macular degeneration affects central vision.
9. During the Weber test, sound lateralizes to the patient's right ear. The Rinne test on
the right ear shows Bone Conduction > Air Conduction (BC > AC). This indicates:
A. Sensorineural loss in the left ear
B. Conductive loss in the right ear
C. Normal hearing
D. Sensorineural loss in the right ear
Answer: B
Rationale: In conductive loss, the Weber test lateralizes to the affected (bad) ear, and the
Rinne test will show that bone conduction is louder than air conduction.
10. What is the most appropriate technique for palpating the liver?
A. Using the fingertips of one hand in the LUQ
B. The "Hooking Technique" at the right costal margin
C. Deep bimanual palpation in the suprapubic area
D. Light palpation in the epigastric region
Answer: B
Rationale: The hooking technique allows the clinician to feel the liver edge as it descends
during inspiration at the right costal margin.
[...Questions 11–45 continue with detailed clinical scenarios for Cardiac, Respiratory,
and GI systems...]
46. A patient presents with "rebound tenderness" at McBurney’s point. This is highly
suggestive of:
A. Diverticulitis
B. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
C. Acute Appendicitis
D. Ectopic Pregnancy
Answer: C
Rationale: McBurney’s point (1/3 the distance from the ASIS to the umbilicus) is the localized
site of pain in late-stage appendicitis.
47. When evaluating Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal), the NP should test:
A. Visual acuity
B. Facial symmetry during a smile
C. Masseter muscle strength and facial sensation
D. Shoulder shrugging against resistance
Answer: C
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
Rationale: CN V has both motor (muscles of mastication) and sensory (ophthalmic, maxillary,
and mandibular branches) functions.
48. Which breath sound is considered normal when heard over the peripheral lung
fields?
A. Bronchial
B. Bronchovesicular
C. Vesicular
D. Tracheal
Answer: C
Rationale: Vesicular sounds are soft, low-pitched sounds heard over most of the lung surface
where air flows through smaller bronchioles and alveoli.
49. An infant’s Moro reflex should typically disappear by what age?
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 8 months
D. 12 months
Answer: B
Rationale: The Moro (startle) reflex is a primitive reflex that normally resolves between 3 and 4
months of age. Persistence beyond 6 months may indicate neurological delay.
50. A 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with a sudden, tearing
chest pain radiating to the back. This is a classic presentation for:
A. Myocardial Infarction
B. Pulmonary Embolism
C. Aortic Dissection
D. Tension Pneumothorax
Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic dissection is characterized by "tearing" or "ripping" pain that often radiates
between the scapulae in the back.
1. A patient presents with "acute, intense epigastric pain" that radiates to the back and
left scapula, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Which physical exam finding would
be a priority to assess for based on this history?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Grey Turner’s sign (flank ecchymosis)
C. Psoas sign
D. Rovsing’s sign
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute epigastric pain radiating to the back is highly suggestive of acute pancreatitis.
NUR 634 Advanced Health Assessment Midterm Master Bank 2025/2026 Q&A | Cardiac,
Respiratory, Neurological & Abdominal Exam
Master the 2025/2026 NUR 634 Midterm with this ultimate exam bank featuring over high-yield
practice questions and verified rationales. This comprehensive study guide covers advanced diagnostic
reasoning, physical examination techniques across the lifespan, and critical differential diagnoses for
cardiac, respiratory, and neurological systems. Designed specifically for graduate nursing students,
these materials ensure you are fully prepared to excel in your Advanced Health Assessment course
and clinical rotations.
1. A patient presents with a chief complaint of "crushing" chest pain. Which of the
following is considered "subjective" data?
A. Blood pressure of 160/94 mmHg
B. Patient stating the pain radiates to the left jaw
C. EKG showing ST-segment elevation
D. Diaphoretic skin noted on physical exam
Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data is what the patient experiences and reports (History), while
objective data is what the clinician observes or measures (Physical Exam/Labs).
2. During a cardiac assessment, the Nurse Practitioner (NP) notes a low-pitched sound
heard best with the bell at the apex during early diastole. This is most likely:
A. S4 (Atrial Gallop)
B. S3 (Ventricular Gallop)
C. Mitral Stenosis murmur
D. Pericardial Friction Rub
Answer: B
Rationale: S3 occurs during the rapid ventricular filling phase of diastole. It is often a sign of
fluid overload or heart failure in adults over age 40.
3. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the movement of the tongue?
A. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN XI (Spinal Accessory)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Answer: D
Rationale: Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal) is a purely motor nerve that controls the extrinsic
and intrinsic muscles of the tongue.
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
4. A positive Murphy’s sign is most indicative of which condition?
A. Acute Appendicitis
B. Acute Cholecystitis
C. Splenomegaly
D. Nephrolithiasis
Answer: B
Rationale: Murphy’s sign is elicited by palpating the RUQ while the patient inhales; a sudden
halt in inspiration due to pain suggests gallbladder inflammation.
5. When percussing the lungs of a patient with a large pneumothorax, the NP expects to
hear:
A. Resonance
B. Dullness
C. Hyperresonance
D. Flatness
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperresonance occurs when there is an over-abundance of air in the chest cavity,
such as in pneumothorax or advanced emphysema.
6. A 24-year-old female presents with a "scaly, herald patch" on her back, followed by a
Christmas tree-like distribution of smaller lesions. What is the diagnosis?
A. Tinea Corporis
B. Pityriasis Rosea
C. Psoriasis
D. Eczema
Answer: B
Rationale: Pityriasis Rosea typically begins with a single herald patch and follows the skin's
cleavage lines in a Christmas tree pattern.
7. Which test is used to assess for a meniscus tear in the knee?
A. Lachman Test
B. McMurray Test
C. Phalen’s Test
D. Drawer Test
Answer: B
Rationale: The McMurray test involves rotating the knee with the patient supine; a "click" or
pain indicates a meniscus injury. Lachman and Drawer tests assess the ACL.
8. A geriatric patient reports a gradual loss of peripheral vision, described as "tunnel
vision." This is a hallmark of:
A. Macular Degeneration
B. Cataracts
C. Glaucoma
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
D. Retinal Detachment
Answer: C
Rationale: Glaucoma typically presents with increased intraocular pressure leading to
peripheral field loss. Macular degeneration affects central vision.
9. During the Weber test, sound lateralizes to the patient's right ear. The Rinne test on
the right ear shows Bone Conduction > Air Conduction (BC > AC). This indicates:
A. Sensorineural loss in the left ear
B. Conductive loss in the right ear
C. Normal hearing
D. Sensorineural loss in the right ear
Answer: B
Rationale: In conductive loss, the Weber test lateralizes to the affected (bad) ear, and the
Rinne test will show that bone conduction is louder than air conduction.
10. What is the most appropriate technique for palpating the liver?
A. Using the fingertips of one hand in the LUQ
B. The "Hooking Technique" at the right costal margin
C. Deep bimanual palpation in the suprapubic area
D. Light palpation in the epigastric region
Answer: B
Rationale: The hooking technique allows the clinician to feel the liver edge as it descends
during inspiration at the right costal margin.
[...Questions 11–45 continue with detailed clinical scenarios for Cardiac, Respiratory,
and GI systems...]
46. A patient presents with "rebound tenderness" at McBurney’s point. This is highly
suggestive of:
A. Diverticulitis
B. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
C. Acute Appendicitis
D. Ectopic Pregnancy
Answer: C
Rationale: McBurney’s point (1/3 the distance from the ASIS to the umbilicus) is the localized
site of pain in late-stage appendicitis.
47. When evaluating Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal), the NP should test:
A. Visual acuity
B. Facial symmetry during a smile
C. Masseter muscle strength and facial sensation
D. Shoulder shrugging against resistance
Answer: C
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
Rationale: CN V has both motor (muscles of mastication) and sensory (ophthalmic, maxillary,
and mandibular branches) functions.
48. Which breath sound is considered normal when heard over the peripheral lung
fields?
A. Bronchial
B. Bronchovesicular
C. Vesicular
D. Tracheal
Answer: C
Rationale: Vesicular sounds are soft, low-pitched sounds heard over most of the lung surface
where air flows through smaller bronchioles and alveoli.
49. An infant’s Moro reflex should typically disappear by what age?
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 8 months
D. 12 months
Answer: B
Rationale: The Moro (startle) reflex is a primitive reflex that normally resolves between 3 and 4
months of age. Persistence beyond 6 months may indicate neurological delay.
50. A 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with a sudden, tearing
chest pain radiating to the back. This is a classic presentation for:
A. Myocardial Infarction
B. Pulmonary Embolism
C. Aortic Dissection
D. Tension Pneumothorax
Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic dissection is characterized by "tearing" or "ripping" pain that often radiates
between the scapulae in the back.
1. A patient presents with "acute, intense epigastric pain" that radiates to the back and
left scapula, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Which physical exam finding would
be a priority to assess for based on this history?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Grey Turner’s sign (flank ecchymosis)
C. Psoas sign
D. Rovsing’s sign
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute epigastric pain radiating to the back is highly suggestive of acute pancreatitis.
