Med-Surg- Cardiovascular Review Questions AND ANSWERS
LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
GRADE A+ ASSURED PASS WITH INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
1. A client complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. He should be presented
with the following treatment:
1. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine
2. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and codeine
3. Oxygen, nitroglycerin, meperidine, and thrombolytics
4. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroprusside, and morphine
ANSWER: 1. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine
2. Which lifestyle changes should a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease consider?
1. Smoking cessation
2. Establishing a regular exercise routine
3. Weight reduction
4. All of the Above
ANSWER: 4. All of the Above
3. A client's cardiac monitor alarm sounds, indicating ventricular tachycardia. The nurse should:
1. perform immediate defibrillation.
2. Assess the client.
3. Call the physician.
4. Administer a precordial thump.
ANSWER: 2. Assess the client.
4. A complication of peripheral vascular disease may be:
1. stasis ulcer.
2. Pressure ulcer.
3. Gastric ulcer.
4. Duodenal ulcer.
ANSWER: 1. stasis ulcer.
5. A key diagnostic test for heart failure is:
1. serum potassium.
2. B-type natriuretic peptide.
,3. Troponin I
4. cardiac enzymes.
ANSWER: 2. B-type natriuretic peptide.
6. While auscultating the heart sounds of a client with mitral insufficiency, the nurse hears an
extra heart sound immediately after the S2. The nurse should document this extra heart sound
as a:
1. S1.
2. S3.
3. S4.
4. mitral murmur.
ANSWER: 2. S3.
RATIONALE: An S3, is heard following an S2. This indicates that the client is experiencing heart
failure and results from increased filling pressures. An S1 is a normal heart sound made by the
closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. An S4 is heard before S1 and is caused by resistance to
ventricular filling. A murmur of mitral insufficiency occurs during systole and is heard when
there's turbulent blood flow across the valve.
7. A nurse administers heparin to a client with deep vein thrombophlebitis. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin?
1. PTT
2. HCT
3. CBC
4. PT
ANSWER: 1. PTT
RATIONALE: The therapeutic effectiveness of heparin is determined by monitoring the patient's
PTT, PT, HCT, and CBC don't monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin. Monitoring the PT
determines warfarin's effectiveness.
8. A client has just returned from cardiac catheterization. Which nursing intervention would be
most appropriate?
1. Help the client ambulate to the bathroom.
2. Restrict fluids.
3. Monitor peripheral pulses.
4. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Answer. 3. Monitor peripheral pulses.
RATIONALE: After cardiac catheterization, monitor peripheral pulses to assess peripheral
perfusion. Helping the client ambulate to the bathroom is incorrect because the client should
,be on bed rest for 4 to 8 hours after the procedure to reduce the risk of bleeding at the
insertion site. Restricting fluids is incorrect because the client should be encouraged to drink
fluids after the procedure, unless contraindicated. Adequate hydration reduces the risk of
nephrotoxicity that can occur with the use of contrast dye. Although urine output is monitored
following cardiac catheterization, the insertion of a urinary catherter isn't necessary.
9. A client is in the first postoperative day after left femoropopliteal revascularization. Which
position would be most appropriate for this client?
1. On his left-sided
2. In high Fowler's position
3. On his right side
4. In a left lateral decubitus position
ANSWER: 3. On his right side
RATIONALE: Following revascularization, avoid positioning the client on the surgical side.
Because this client had left femoropoliteal revascularization, he may be positioned on the right
side. Placing the client on the left side is incorrect because this would position the client on the
operative side. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position is incorrect because the client
should avoid flexion at the surgical site. Placing the client in a left lateral decubitus position is
incorrect because this would place the client on the surgical side and cause flexion at the site.
10. A nurse is evaluating a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding should the nurse
expect to assess?
1. Ascites
2. Dyspnea
3. Hepatomegaly
4. Jugular vein distention
ANSWER: 2. Dyspnea
RATIONALE: Dyspnea may occur in a client with left-sided heart failure. Ascites, hepatomegaly,
and jugular vein distention are assessment findings in right-sided heart failure.
11. A client has developed acute pulmonary edema. Which test result should the nurse expect?
1. Interstitial edema by chest X-ray
2. Metabolic alkalosis by ABG analysis
3. Bradycardia by ECG
4. Decreased PAWP by hemodynamic monitoring
ANSWER: 1. Interstitial edema by chest X-ray
RATIONALE: The chest X-ray of a client with acute pulmonary edema shows interstitial edema as
a result of the heart's failure to pump adequately. Metabolic alkalosis is incorrect because the
, ABG analysis of a client in acute pulmonary edema shows respiratory alkalosis or acidosis.
Bradycardia is incorrect because the ECG would most likely indicate tachycardia. Decreased
PAWP is incorrect because PAWP rises in the client with acute pulmonary edema.
12. A nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with PVD. The nurse should teach the
client to:
1. inspect his feet weekly
2. begin a daily walking program
3. wear constrictive clothing
4. stand rather than sit when possible
ANSWER: 2. begin a daily walking program
RATIONALE: The nurse should encourage the client with PVD to follow a program of walking and
other leg exercises. Inspecting the feet weekly is incorrect because the nurse should teach the
client to inspect his feet daily. Wearing constrictive clothing is incorrect because the client
should wear loose clothing that doesn't restrict circulation. Standing when possible—rather
than sitting—is incorrect because the client should avoid standing for long periods.
13. If a nurse knows a client's heart rate, what other value and formula does she need to know
to calculate CO?
ANSWER: Stroke Volume
RATIONALE: Cardiac output equals stroke volume (the amount of blood ejected with each beat)
times heart rate. [CO = SV X HR]
14. A client comes to the clinic and states he has a history of hypertension. Which type of
medication might the nurse expect the client to be taking to control his blood pressure?
1. Antilipemics
2. Antibiotics
3. ACE inhibitors
4. Antidiabetics
ANSWER: 3. ACE inhibitors
RATIONALE: ACE inhibitors may be prescribed to help control high blood pressure. Other types
of medications that may be prescribed include diuretics, calcium channel blockers, angiotensin II
receptor blockers, and beta-adrenergic blockers. Antilipemics help lower serum cholesterol
levels. Antibiotics are used to fight infection, and antidiabetics help control serum glucose
levels.
15. A cardiologist prescribes digoxin (Lanoxin)125 mcg by mouth every morning for a client
diagnosed with heart failure. The pharmacy dispenses tablets that contain 0.25 mg each. How
LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
GRADE A+ ASSURED PASS WITH INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
1. A client complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. He should be presented
with the following treatment:
1. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine
2. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and codeine
3. Oxygen, nitroglycerin, meperidine, and thrombolytics
4. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroprusside, and morphine
ANSWER: 1. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine
2. Which lifestyle changes should a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease consider?
1. Smoking cessation
2. Establishing a regular exercise routine
3. Weight reduction
4. All of the Above
ANSWER: 4. All of the Above
3. A client's cardiac monitor alarm sounds, indicating ventricular tachycardia. The nurse should:
1. perform immediate defibrillation.
2. Assess the client.
3. Call the physician.
4. Administer a precordial thump.
ANSWER: 2. Assess the client.
4. A complication of peripheral vascular disease may be:
1. stasis ulcer.
2. Pressure ulcer.
3. Gastric ulcer.
4. Duodenal ulcer.
ANSWER: 1. stasis ulcer.
5. A key diagnostic test for heart failure is:
1. serum potassium.
2. B-type natriuretic peptide.
,3. Troponin I
4. cardiac enzymes.
ANSWER: 2. B-type natriuretic peptide.
6. While auscultating the heart sounds of a client with mitral insufficiency, the nurse hears an
extra heart sound immediately after the S2. The nurse should document this extra heart sound
as a:
1. S1.
2. S3.
3. S4.
4. mitral murmur.
ANSWER: 2. S3.
RATIONALE: An S3, is heard following an S2. This indicates that the client is experiencing heart
failure and results from increased filling pressures. An S1 is a normal heart sound made by the
closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. An S4 is heard before S1 and is caused by resistance to
ventricular filling. A murmur of mitral insufficiency occurs during systole and is heard when
there's turbulent blood flow across the valve.
7. A nurse administers heparin to a client with deep vein thrombophlebitis. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin?
1. PTT
2. HCT
3. CBC
4. PT
ANSWER: 1. PTT
RATIONALE: The therapeutic effectiveness of heparin is determined by monitoring the patient's
PTT, PT, HCT, and CBC don't monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin. Monitoring the PT
determines warfarin's effectiveness.
8. A client has just returned from cardiac catheterization. Which nursing intervention would be
most appropriate?
1. Help the client ambulate to the bathroom.
2. Restrict fluids.
3. Monitor peripheral pulses.
4. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Answer. 3. Monitor peripheral pulses.
RATIONALE: After cardiac catheterization, monitor peripheral pulses to assess peripheral
perfusion. Helping the client ambulate to the bathroom is incorrect because the client should
,be on bed rest for 4 to 8 hours after the procedure to reduce the risk of bleeding at the
insertion site. Restricting fluids is incorrect because the client should be encouraged to drink
fluids after the procedure, unless contraindicated. Adequate hydration reduces the risk of
nephrotoxicity that can occur with the use of contrast dye. Although urine output is monitored
following cardiac catheterization, the insertion of a urinary catherter isn't necessary.
9. A client is in the first postoperative day after left femoropopliteal revascularization. Which
position would be most appropriate for this client?
1. On his left-sided
2. In high Fowler's position
3. On his right side
4. In a left lateral decubitus position
ANSWER: 3. On his right side
RATIONALE: Following revascularization, avoid positioning the client on the surgical side.
Because this client had left femoropoliteal revascularization, he may be positioned on the right
side. Placing the client on the left side is incorrect because this would position the client on the
operative side. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position is incorrect because the client
should avoid flexion at the surgical site. Placing the client in a left lateral decubitus position is
incorrect because this would place the client on the surgical side and cause flexion at the site.
10. A nurse is evaluating a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding should the nurse
expect to assess?
1. Ascites
2. Dyspnea
3. Hepatomegaly
4. Jugular vein distention
ANSWER: 2. Dyspnea
RATIONALE: Dyspnea may occur in a client with left-sided heart failure. Ascites, hepatomegaly,
and jugular vein distention are assessment findings in right-sided heart failure.
11. A client has developed acute pulmonary edema. Which test result should the nurse expect?
1. Interstitial edema by chest X-ray
2. Metabolic alkalosis by ABG analysis
3. Bradycardia by ECG
4. Decreased PAWP by hemodynamic monitoring
ANSWER: 1. Interstitial edema by chest X-ray
RATIONALE: The chest X-ray of a client with acute pulmonary edema shows interstitial edema as
a result of the heart's failure to pump adequately. Metabolic alkalosis is incorrect because the
, ABG analysis of a client in acute pulmonary edema shows respiratory alkalosis or acidosis.
Bradycardia is incorrect because the ECG would most likely indicate tachycardia. Decreased
PAWP is incorrect because PAWP rises in the client with acute pulmonary edema.
12. A nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with PVD. The nurse should teach the
client to:
1. inspect his feet weekly
2. begin a daily walking program
3. wear constrictive clothing
4. stand rather than sit when possible
ANSWER: 2. begin a daily walking program
RATIONALE: The nurse should encourage the client with PVD to follow a program of walking and
other leg exercises. Inspecting the feet weekly is incorrect because the nurse should teach the
client to inspect his feet daily. Wearing constrictive clothing is incorrect because the client
should wear loose clothing that doesn't restrict circulation. Standing when possible—rather
than sitting—is incorrect because the client should avoid standing for long periods.
13. If a nurse knows a client's heart rate, what other value and formula does she need to know
to calculate CO?
ANSWER: Stroke Volume
RATIONALE: Cardiac output equals stroke volume (the amount of blood ejected with each beat)
times heart rate. [CO = SV X HR]
14. A client comes to the clinic and states he has a history of hypertension. Which type of
medication might the nurse expect the client to be taking to control his blood pressure?
1. Antilipemics
2. Antibiotics
3. ACE inhibitors
4. Antidiabetics
ANSWER: 3. ACE inhibitors
RATIONALE: ACE inhibitors may be prescribed to help control high blood pressure. Other types
of medications that may be prescribed include diuretics, calcium channel blockers, angiotensin II
receptor blockers, and beta-adrenergic blockers. Antilipemics help lower serum cholesterol
levels. Antibiotics are used to fight infection, and antidiabetics help control serum glucose
levels.
15. A cardiologist prescribes digoxin (Lanoxin)125 mcg by mouth every morning for a client
diagnosed with heart failure. The pharmacy dispenses tablets that contain 0.25 mg each. How
